Class 12 Archives - https://notesjobs.in/category/class-12/ A Way Towards Success Sat, 10 Feb 2024 02:20:02 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=6.6.2 https://notesjobs.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/03/cropped-cropped-site-logo-32x32.jpg Class 12 Archives - https://notesjobs.in/category/class-12/ 32 32 Class 12 The Crisis of Democratic Order MCQs https://notesjobs.in/class-12-the-crisis-of-democratic-order-mcqs/ Fri, 02 Feb 2024 02:03:48 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14764 Class 12 The Crisis of Democratic Order MCQs Why was Emergency imposed? Was it necessary? (a) Due to external aggression (b) Perceived threat of internal disturbance (c) Natural disaster (d) To suppress freedom of press Answer Answer: (b) Perceived threat of internal disturbance What did the imposition of Emergency mean in practice? (a) Suspension of ... Read more

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]]> Class 12 The Crisis of Democratic Order MCQs

Why was Emergency imposed? Was it necessary?
  • (a) Due to external aggression
  • (b) Perceived threat of internal disturbance
  • (c) Natural disaster
  • (d) To suppress freedom of press
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Perceived threat of internal disturbance

     What did the imposition of Emergency mean in practice?
  • (a) Suspension of fundamental rights
  • (b) Enhanced civil liberties
  • (c) Increased political dissent
  • (d) Strengthened democratic institutions
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Suspension of fundamental rights

     What were the consequences of Emergency on party politics?
  • (a) Strengthening of opposition parties
  • (b) Weakening of political dissent
  • (c) Consolidation of power within ruling party
  • (d) Emergence of new political ideologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Consolidation of power within ruling party

     What are the lessons of Emergency for Indian democracy?
  • (a) Need for stronger executive powers
  • (b) Importance of constitutional checks and balances
  • (c) Suppression of civil liberties is justified in times of crisis
  • (d) Political dissent should be curtailed for national stability
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Importance of constitutional checks and balances

     What was the relationship between the government and the judiciary during the period discussed?
  • (a) Harmonious
  • (b) Tense
  • (c) Collaborative
  • (d) Non-existent
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Tense

     What was the Congress party’s stance towards the Supreme Court’s decisions?
  • (a) Supportive
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Opposed
  • (d) Indifferent
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Opposed

     How did opponents of the Congress party view the political landscape during the period discussed?
  • (a) Fragmented
  • (b) Personalised
  • (c) United
  • (d) Stable
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Personalised

     What effect did the split in the Congress party have on the political landscape?
  • (a) Increased unity
  • (b) Deepened divisions
  • (c) Enhanced cooperation
  • (d) Strengthened democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Deepened divisions

     How did the Congress party perceive the role of the judiciary during this period?
  • (a) Progressive
  • (b) Conservative
  • (c) Neutral
  • (d) Irrelevant
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Conservative

     What was the primary reason behind the tensions between the government and the judiciary during the period discussed?
  • (a) Personal disputes
  • (b) Violation of parliamentary norms
  • (c) Conflict over constitutional interpretations
  • (d) Ideological differences
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Conflict over constitutional interpretations

     What was the Congress party’s stance regarding the Supreme Court’s actions?
  • (a) Supportive
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Opposed
  • (d) Indifferent
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Opposed

     How did the opposition parties perceive the trend in Indian politics during the period discussed?
  • (a) Fragmented
  • (b) Personalized
  • (c) United
  • (d) Stable
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Personalized

     What impact did the split within the Congress party have on the political scenario?
  • (a) Increased unity
  • (b) Deepened divisions
  • (c) Enhanced cooperation
  • (d) Strengthened democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Deepened divisions

     What was the Congress party’s perception of the judiciary during this period?
  • (a) Progressive
  • (b) Conservative
  • (c) Neutral
  • (d) Irrelevant
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Conservative

     What was the slogan given by the Congress party in the elections of 1971?
  • (a) Remove Poverty
  • (b) Garibi Hatao
  • (c) Economic Revolution
  • (d) Development for All
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Garibi Hatao

     What was the impact of the Bangladesh crisis on India’s economy?
  • (a) Boosted economic growth
  • (b) Strained the economy
  • (c) Stabilized currency rates
  • (d) Increased foreign investments
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Strained the economy

     What effect did the increase in oil prices have on India’s economy during the period discussed?
  • (a) Decreased inflation
  • (b) Reduced unemployment
  • (c) Lowered commodity prices
  • (d) Led to an all-round increase in prices
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Led to an all-round increase in prices

     What was the impact of the failure of monsoons in 1972-1973 on agricultural productivity?
  • (a) Increased agricultural output
  • (b) No impact on productivity
  • (c) Sharp decline in productivity
  • (d) Stability in food grain output
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sharp decline in productivity

     What impact did the prevailing economic situation have on the activities of non-Congress opposition parties?
  • (a) Decreased their activities
  • (b) No impact on their activities
  • (c) Organized popular protests effectively
  • (d) Strengthened Congress party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Organized popular protests effectively

     What groups were particularly strong in West Bengal during this period?
  • (a) Socialist groups
  • (b) Communist groups
  • (c) Marxist-Leninist (now Maoist) groups or Naxalites
  • (d) Secular groups
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Marxist-Leninist (now Maoist) groups or Naxalites

     What measures did the government take to reduce expenditure during this period?
  • (a) Increased salaries of its employees
  • (b) Initiated new welfare programs
  • (c) Froze the salaries of its employees
  • (d) Provided subsidies to industries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Froze the salaries of its employees

     What was the general atmosphere regarding the prevailing economic situation in the country during the period discussed?
  • (a) Satisfaction
  • (b) Indifference
  • (c) Dissatisfaction
  • (d) Contentment
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Dissatisfaction

     1. What was the main cause of the students’ protests in Gujarat and Bihar?
  • (a) Unemployment
  • (b) Rising prices of essential commodities
  • (c) Political corruption
  • (d) Lack of education
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rising prices of essential commodities

    2. What action did Morarji Desai threaten to take if fresh elections were not held in Gujarat?
  • (a) Sit-in protests
  • (b) Boycott of government services
  • (c) Hunger strike
  • (d) Legal challenge in the Supreme Court
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Hunger strike

    3. What was the outcome of the assembly elections in Gujarat held in June 1975?
  • (a) Congress retained power
  • (b) Imposition of President’s rule
  • (c) Victory for opposition parties
  • (d) Formation of a coalition government
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Victory for opposition parties

    4. Who was invited by the students in Bihar to lead their protest?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (c) Jayaprakash Narayan (JP)
  • (d) Morarji Desai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Jayaprakash Narayan (JP)

    5. What demand did Jayaprakash Narayan make regarding the Bihar government?
  • (a) Increase in wages
  • (b) Resignation of the Chief Minister
  • (c) Introduction of new policies
  • (d) Dissolution of the state legislature
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Resignation of the Chief Minister

    6. Which political leader was associated with the demand for total revolution?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (c) Morarji Desai
  • (d) Jayaprakash Narayan (JP)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Jayaprakash Narayan (JP)

    7. What types of protests were organized against the Bihar government?
  • (a) Peaceful demonstrations
  • (b) Hunger strikes
  • (c) Bandhs, gehraos, and strikes
  • (d) Social media campaigns
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Bandhs, gehraos, and strikes

    1. What movement did Jayaprakash Narayan want to spread to other parts of the country?
  • (a) Bihar Movement
  • (b) Gujarat Movement
  • (c) Rajasthan Movement
  • (d) Maharashtra Movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Bihar Movement

    2. What action did the employees of the Railways call for?
  • (a) Nationwide strike
  • (b) Local protests
  • (c) Meeting with government officials
  • (d) Social media campaign
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Nationwide strike

    3. What was the purpose of JP’s people’s march to the Parliament?
  • (a) To protest against the opposition parties
  • (b) To support Indira Gandhi
  • (c) To demand reforms in the railway system
  • (d) To demand political change
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) To demand political change

    4. Which political parties supported Jayaprakash Narayan as an alternative to Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) Only Congress (O)
  • (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Socialist Party
  • (c) Only Bharatiya Lok Dal
  • (d) Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Congress (O), Bharatiya Lok Dal, and Socialist Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Congress (O), Bharatiya Lok Dal, and Socialist Party

    5. How did Indira Gandhi perceive the movements in Gujarat and Bihar?
  • (a) As protests against the opposition parties
  • (b) As movements for economic reforms
  • (c) As anti-Congress and protests against her leadership
  • (d) As movements for rural development
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) As anti-Congress and protests against her leadership

    1. According to the Supreme Court, can the Parliament abridge Fundamental Rights?
  • (a) Yes
  • (b) No
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) No

    2. What was the Supreme Court’s response to Parliament’s attempt to curtail the right to property through an amendment?
  • (a) Accepted the amendment
  • (b) Rejected the amendment
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rejected the amendment

    3. What was the central issue in the Kesavananda Bharati Case?
  • (a) The appointment of the Chief Justice of India
  • (b) Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights
  • (c) The right to property
  • (d) The conflict between the judiciary and the executive
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights

    4. Who was appointed as the Chief Justice of India in 1973 despite the convention of appointing the senior-most judge?
  • (a) Justice A. N. Ray
  • (b) Justice Kesavananda Bharati
  • (c) Justice Indira Gandhi
  • (d) Justice Keshavananda Bharati
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Justice A. N. Ray

    5. What was the political controversy surrounding the appointment of Justice A. N. Ray?
  • (a) He had given rulings against the government
  • (b) He was the most qualified judge
  • (c) He was appointed based on seniority
  • (d) He was appointed based on popular demand
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) He had given rulings against the government

    6. What was the climax of the confrontation between the judiciary and the executive?
  • (a) Supreme Court’s decision in the Kesavananda Bharati Case
  • (b) Ruling of the High Court declaring Indira Gandhi’s election invalid
  • (c) Appointment of Justice A. N. Ray as Chief Justice
  • (d) Parliament’s attempt to amend the Constitution
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Ruling of the High Court declaring Indira Gandhi’s election invalid

    7. What were the three constitutional issues that emerged in the conflict between Parliament and the judiciary?
  • (a) Appointment of Chief Justice, Judicial Powers, Political Ideologies
  • (b) Fundamental Rights, Right to Property, Directive Principles
  • (c) Parliament’s authority, Right to Property, Judiciary’s independence
  • (d) Judicial Interpretations, Executive Authority, Directive Principles
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Fundamental Rights, Right to Property, Directive Principles

    What did the Supreme Court conclude about Parliament’s power to abridge Fundamental Rights for giving effect to Directive Principles?
  • (a) Accepted the provision
  • (b) Rejected the provision
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rejected the provision

    What did the confrontation between the judiciary and the executive lead to in 1975?
  • (a) Presidential rule in Gujarat
  • (b) Supreme Court’s intervention
  • (c) High Court ruling on election validity
  • (d) Imposition of emergency
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Imposition of emergency

    What role did the judiciary play in the political controversies of the time?
  • (a) It supported the government’s decisions
  • (b) It maintained its independence
  • (c) It favored the opposition’s stance
  • (d) It was involved in corruption allegations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) It maintained its independence

    1. What was the outcome of the Allahabad High Court judgment on Indira Gandhi’s election?
  • (a) Declared her election as Prime Minister
  • (b) Invalidated her election to the Lok Sabha
  • (c) Upheld her election petition
  • (d) Granted her an extension as Prime Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Invalidated her election to the Lok Sabha

    2. Who filed the election petition challenging Indira Gandhi’s election?
  • (a) Morarji Desai
  • (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (c) Raj Narain
  • (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Raj Narain

    3. What was the reason cited for challenging Indira Gandhi’s election?
  • (a) Misuse of government resources
  • (b) Voter fraud
  • (c) Intimidation of opposition candidates
  • (d) Violation of electoral spending limits
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Misuse of government resources

    4. What action did the Supreme Court take regarding the High Court’s judgment?
  • (a) Upheld the High Court’s decision
  • (b) Granted a complete stay on the judgment
  • (c) Allowed Indira Gandhi to continue as Prime Minister
  • (d) Granted a partial stay on the judgment
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Granted a partial stay on the judgment

    5. What was the significance of the judgment’s timeframe for Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) She had to recontest the Lok Sabha elections within six months
  • (b) She was immediately removed from her position
  • (c) She was banned from participating in political activities for six months
  • (d) She had to step down as Prime Minister within six weeks
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) She had to recontest the Lok Sabha elections within six months

    1. What event led to the massive demonstration at Delhi’s Ramlila grounds on 25 June 1975?
  • (a) Jayaprakash Narayan’s resignation
  • (b) Indira Gandhi’s resignation
  • (c) Declaration of a state of emergency
  • (d) Nationwide satyagraha
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Nationwide satyagraha

    2. Under what provision of the Constitution was the state of emergency declared?
  • (a) Article 356
  • (b) Article 358
  • (c) Article 352
  • (d) Article 360
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Article 352

    3. What powers does the government gain once an emergency is declared?
  • (a) Limited control over state governments
  • (b) Suspension of all powers
  • (c) Concentration of powers in the hands of the union government
  • (d) Complete decentralization of powers
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Concentration of powers in the hands of the union government

    4. Who issued the proclamation for the imposition of Emergency?
  • (a) President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
  • (b) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
  • (c) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (d) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

    5. What action did the government take regarding major newspaper offices during the Emergency?
  • (a) Increased security
  • (b) Disconnected electricity
  • (c) Issued warnings
  • (d) Imposed censorship
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Disconnected electricity

    6. What was the response of the government to the massive demonstration at Ramlila grounds?
  • (a) Imposed martial law
  • (b) Declared a state of emergency
  • (c) Announced snap elections
  • (d) Initiated peace talks
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Declared a state of emergency

    7. What was the purpose of Jayaprakash Narayan’s call for a nationwide satyagraha?
  • (a) To support the government
  • (b) To demand fresh elections
  • (c) To protest against government corruption
  • (d) To advocate for military intervention
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) To protest against government corruption

    8. How did the government perceive the nationwide satyagraha?
  • (a) As a peaceful protest
  • (b) As a threat to national security
  • (c) As a call for unity
  • (d) As a sign of progress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) As a threat to national security

    9. What was the political mood of the country during the crisis?
  • (a) Pro-Congress
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Against the Congress
  • (d) Divided
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Against the Congress

    1. What action did the government take to control the agitation during Emergency?
  • (a) Authorized free press
  • (b) Banned protests and strikes
  • (c) Released opposition leaders from jail
  • (d) Encouraged public demonstrations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Banned protests and strikes

    2. What was the response of newspapers to press censorship during Emergency?
  • (a) They complied without any protest
  • (b) They resorted to printing only government-approved news
  • (c) They left blank spaces in protest against censorship
  • (d) They shut down their operations temporarily
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) They left blank spaces in protest against censorship

    3. What organizations were banned during Emergency?
  • (a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  • (b) Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) and Jamait-e-Islami
  • (c) Congress (O)
  • (d) Socialist Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) and Jamait-e-Islami

    4. What is preventive detention?
  • (a) Detaining individuals for committed offenses
  • (b) Arresting people without any reason
  • (c) Detaining people based on potential future actions
  • (d) Releasing individuals without proper investigation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Detaining people based on potential future actions

    5. What was the significance of the Supreme Court’s decision in April 1976?
  • (a) It upheld citizens’ rights during Emergency
  • (b) It granted the government more powers
  • (c) It restricted the government’s authority
  • (d) It limited the scope of judiciary during Emergency
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) It limited the scope of judiciary during Emergency

    6. How did the government react to the opposition’s call for resignation during Emergency?
  • (a) Initiated peace talks
  • (b) Declared a state of emergency
  • (c) Granted all demands
  • (d) Banned protests and strikes
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Declared a state of emergency

    8. What was the government’s rationale behind preventive detention during Emergency?
  • (a) To maintain law and order
  • (b) To support democratic rights
  • (c) To encourage dissent
  • (d) To foster political stability
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) To maintain law and order

    9. What did the newspapers like Indian Express and Statesman do in protest against press censorship?
  • (a) Continued publishing without censorship
  • (b) Resorted to self-censorship
  • (c) Left blank spaces in their publications
  • (d) Supported the government’s decision
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Left blank spaces in their publications

    10. What were the main consequences of the government’s decision to suspend Fundamental Rights during Emergency?
  • (a) Increased freedom of speech
  • (b) Curtailment of citizen’s rights
  • (c) Expansion of civil liberties
  • (d) Strengthening of democratic institutions
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Curtailment of citizen’s rights

    11. What was the reaction of the Indian judiciary to the government’s actions during Emergency?
  • (a) Issued supportive rulings
  • (b) Challenged government decisions
  • (c) Refrained from involvement
  • (d) Facilitated government measures
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Challenged government decisions

    12. What was the significance of the Supreme Court’s judgment regarding habeas corpus petitions?
  • (a) Upheld the rights of detainees
  • (b) Limited citizens’ access to courts
  • (c) Expanded legal protections
  • (d) Encouraged political dissent
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Limited citizens’ access to courts

    1. What was the purpose of the forty-second amendment to the Indian Constitution?
  • (a) Limit the powers of the President
  • (b) Extend the term of Parliament and state legislatures
  • (c) Strengthen the role of the judiciary
  • (d) Enhance the powers of the Prime Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Extend the term of Parliament and state legislatures

    2. What specific provision was introduced regarding the challenge to the elections of Prime Minister, President, and Vice President?
  • (a) Elections could be challenged only by the Parliament
  • (b) Elections could not be challenged in any court
  • (c) Elections could be challenged only in the Supreme Court
  • (d) Elections could be challenged in the High Court
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Elections could not be challenged in any court

    3. What significant change was made to the duration of legislatures as per the forty-second amendment?
  • (a) Reduced from six years to five years
  • (b) Extended from four years to five years
  • (c) Extended from five years to six years
  • (d) No change was made
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Extended from five years to six years

    4. What was the rationale behind extending the term of legislatures as per the amendment?
  • (a) To increase political stability
  • (b) To promote democratic principles
  • (c) To accommodate the Emergency period
  • (d) To strengthen the role of the opposition
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) To accommodate the Emergency period

    5. During an Emergency, how long could elections be postponed according to the provisions?
  • (a) One month
  • (b) One year
  • (c) Six months
  • (d) Two years
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) One year

    1. What did the Emergency period reveal about India’s democracy?
  • (a) It proved that democracy is fragile in India
  • (b) It showed the strength and resilience of India’s democracy
  • (c) It demonstrated the need for authoritarian rule
  • (d) It highlighted the irrelevance of democracy in India
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) It showed the strength and resilience of India’s democracy

    2. What changes were made to the Emergency provision in the Constitution after the Emergency period?
  • (a) Internal Emergency can only be declared on the grounds of civil unrest
  • (b) Internal Emergency can only be declared on the grounds of armed rebellion
  • (c) External Emergency can only be declared on the grounds of civil unrest
  • (d) External Emergency can only be declared on the grounds of armed rebellion
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Internal Emergency can only be declared on the grounds of armed rebellion

    3. What awareness did the Emergency period bring regarding civil liberties?
  • (a) It highlighted the need for increased government control
  • (b) It emphasized the importance of restricting civil liberties
  • (c) It made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties
  • (d) It showed that civil liberties are not important in times of crisis
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) It made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties

    4. What issues arose regarding the implementation of Emergency rule?
  • (a) Lack of coordination between government agencies
  • (b) Independence of police and administration
  • (c) Overwhelming support from civil liberties organizations
  • (d) Political pressures on the judiciary
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Political pressures on the judiciary

    5. What tension does the chapter highlight regarding democratic functioning and political protests?
  • (a) Tension between state and central governments
  • (b) Tension between routine functioning and continuous protests
  • (c) Tension between legislative and executive branches
  • (d) Tension between civil society and government
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Tension between routine functioning and continuous protests

    6. According to the chapter, what role did the Courts play after the Emergency?
  • (a) They supported the government’s actions unconditionally
  • (b) They actively protected civil liberties
  • (c) They became instruments of political pressure
  • (d) They stayed neutral and didn’t intervene
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) They actively protected civil liberties

    7. What effect did the Emergency have on civil liberties organizations?
  • (a) They were disbanded
  • (b) They became more active
  • (c) They lost public support
  • (d) They supported the government’s actions
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) They became more active

    8. What did the Shah Commission Report reveal about the police and administration during the Emergency?
  • (a) They acted independently
  • (b) They resisted political pressures
  • (c) They became vulnerable to political pressures
  • (d) They upheld civil liberties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) They became vulnerable to political pressures

    1. What was the main slogan of the opposition during the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Save the Nation
  • (b) Save Democracy
  • (c) Emergency Must End
  • (d) Fight Against Corruption
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Save Democracy

    2. What was the impact of the Emergency on the 1977 elections?
  • (a) The government won a landslide victory
  • (b) Voters endorsed the Emergency
  • (c) The elections were boycotted
  • (d) The opposition won decisively
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) The opposition won decisively

    3. Which party did the major opposition parties form on the eve of the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Indian National Congress
  • (b) Janata Party
  • (c) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (d) Communist Party of India
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Janata Party

    4. Who was the leader accepted by the Janata Party?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Morarji Desai
  • (c) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (d) Raj Narain
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Jayaprakash Narayan

    5. What party did some Congress leaders form under Jagjivan Ram’s leadership?
  • (a) Janata Party
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (c) Congress for Democracy
  • (d) Indian National Congress (I)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress for Democracy

    6. What did the 1977 elections turn into for the people of north India?
  • (a) A festival
  • (b) A protest
  • (c) A referendum on the Emergency
  • (d) A trial for the opposition leaders
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) A referendum on the Emergency

    7. What was the primary lesson learned from the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Governments perceived as anti-democratic are punished
  • (b) People prefer authoritarian rule
  • (c) Emergency strengthens democracy
  • (d) Opposition parties always lose elections
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Governments perceived as anti-democratic are punished

    8. What was the duration of the Emergency?
  • (a) 12 months
  • (b) 18 months
  • (c) 24 months
  • (d) 6 months
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 18 months

    1. What was the primary focus of the Janata Party’s campaign during the election?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) Restoration of democracy
  • (c) Foreign policy changes
  • (d) Social welfare programs
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Restoration of democracy

    2. Who became the symbol of the restoration of democracy during the election?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Sanjay Gandhi
  • (c) Raj Narain
  • (d) Jayaprakash Narayan
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Jayaprakash Narayan

    3. How many seats did the Congress win in the Lok Sabha elections of 1977?
  • (a) 154
  • (b) 295
  • (c) 330
  • (d) 542
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) 154

    4. How many seats did the Janata Party win in the Lok Sabha elections of 1977?
  • (a) 154
  • (b) 295
  • (c) 330
  • (d) 542
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 330

    5. In which region did the Congress face a massive electoral wave against it?
  • (a) South India
  • (b) North India
  • (c) East India
  • (d) West India
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) North India

    6. Which constituency did Indira Gandhi lose from during the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Amethi
  • (b) Rae Bareli
  • (c) Delhi
  • (d) Rajasthan
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rae Bareli

    7. Which party won only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh?
  • (a) Janata Party
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (c) Congress
  • (d) Congress for Democracy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress

    8. What percentage of popular votes did the Congress receive in the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Less than 25%
  • (b) Less than 35%
  • (c) More than 50%
  • (d) More than 60%
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Less than 35%

    1. Who were the three leaders in stiff competition for the post of Prime Minister after the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi, Morarji Desai, Jagjivan Ram
  • (b) Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram
  • (c) Raj Narain, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram
  • (d) Indira Gandhi, Charan Singh, Raj Narain
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram

    2. Who eventually became the Prime Minister after the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Charan Singh
  • (c) Morarji Desai
  • (d) Jagjivan Ram
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Morarji Desai

    3. What was the major criticism of the Janata Party government?
  • (a) Lack of experience
  • (b) Lack of direction, leadership, and a common program
  • (c) Excessive authoritarianism
  • (d) Lack of resources
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Lack of direction, leadership, and a common program

    4. How long did the Charan Singh government remain in power?
  • (a) Less than 6 months
  • (b) About 12 months
  • (c) More than 18 months
  • (d) About 4 months
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) About 4 months

    5. In which year were the fresh Lok Sabha elections held following the Janata Party’s defeat?
  • (a) 1979
  • (b) 1980
  • (c) 1978
  • (d) 1976
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1980

    6. How many seats did the Congress win in the fresh Lok Sabha elections of 1980?
  • (a) 154
  • (b) 295
  • (c) 353
  • (d) 542
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 353

    7. What lesson in democratic politics was learned from the experience of 1977-79?
  • (a) Stability is not essential
  • (b) Unstable governments are favored by voters
  • (c) Governments perceived as unstable are punished by voters
  • (d) Authoritarianism is preferred by voters
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Governments perceived as unstable are punished by voters

    8. Which party did not lose its grip in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Orissa after the 1977 Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Janata Party
  • (b) Congress
  • (c) Bharatiya Lok Dal
  • (d) Bharatiya Janata Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress

    9. < FONT COLOR="blue">Which party merged with the Janata Party after the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Bharatiya Lok Dal
  • (b) Indian National Congress
  • (c) Congress for Democracy
  • (d) Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress for Democracy

    10. Who led the Janata Party during the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Morarji Desai
  • (c) Charan Singh
  • (d) Jagjivan Ram
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Jagjivan Ram

    1. What characterized the Congress party’s shift in identity from 1969 onwards?
  • (a) Accommodating leaders of different ideologies
  • (b) Embracing socialism and pro-poor policies
  • (c) Advocating for capitalism
  • (d) Remaining politically neutral
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Embracing socialism and pro-poor policies

    2. What was the strategy adopted by opposition parties in response to the Congress party’s ideological shift?
  • (a) Non-Congressism
  • (b) Socialist revolution
  • (c) Pro-Congressism
  • (d) Centrist alliance
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Non-Congressism

    3. What role did the backward castes play in the elections of 1977?
  • (a) They supported the Congress party
  • (b) They remained politically neutral
  • (c) They shifted their allegiance away from the Congress party
  • (d) They supported a centrist alliance
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) They shifted their allegiance away from the Congress party

    4. What controversial issue arose in Bihar following the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Reservations for the upper castes
  • (b) Reservations for women
  • (c) Reservations for the backward castes
  • (d) Reservations for religious minorities
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Reservations for the backward castes

    5. What was the response of the Janata Party government to the issue of reservations for ‘other backward classes’?
  • (a) It opposed reservations altogether
  • (b) It ignored the issue
  • (c) It appointed the Mandal Commission
  • (d) It supported reservations for the upper castes
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) It appointed the Mandal Commission

    6. What change did the elections after the Emergency trigger in the party system?
  • (a) Shift towards a two-party system
  • (b) Emergence of multiple regional parties
  • (c) The dominance of the Congress party
  • (d) Transition to a coalition government
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Emergence of multiple regional parties

    7. What characterized the period around the Emergency?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Political stability
  • (c) Constitutional crisis
  • (d) Social harmony
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Constitutional crisis

    8. What was the ideological shift of the Congress party since the early nineteen seventies?
  • (a) Embracing capitalism
  • (b) Becoming politically neutral
  • (c) Claiming to be socialist and pro-poor
  • (d) Rejecting socialism
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Claiming to be socialist and pro-poor

    9. What role did ‘non-Congressism’ play in the elections of 1977?
  • (a) It strengthened the Congress party
  • (b) It weakened the opposition
  • (c) It united the opposition against the Congress
  • (d) It had no impact on the elections
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) It united the opposition against the Congress

    10. What factor influenced the politics of north India following the 1977 elections?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) Social revolution
  • (c) Backward caste alliances
  • (d) Religious extremism
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Backward caste alliances

    1. What was the critical issue that emerged during the period discussed?
  • (a) Role of political parties
  • (b) Role of mass protests
  • (c) Constitutional amendments
  • (d) Government accountability
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Role of mass protests

    2. What trust did the makers of India’s Constitution have regarding political parties?
  • (a) They would suspend democratic norms
  • (b) They would uphold the rule of law
  • (c) They would prioritize revolutionary ideologies
  • (d) They would endorse government abuse of power
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) They would uphold the rule of law

    3. What was abused during the Emergency according to the passage?
  • (a) Democratic norms
  • (b) Revolutionary ideologies
  • (c) Constitutional amendments
  • (d) Extraordinary powers
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Extraordinary powers

    4. What tension is highlighted in the passage?
  • (a) Tension between political parties
  • (b) Tension between government and opposition
  • (c) Tension between institution-based democracy and spontaneous popular participation
  • (d) Tension between legislative and executive branches
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Tension between institution-based democracy and spontaneous popular participation

    5. What is the setting of the film described?
  • (a) 1960s
  • (b) 1970s
  • (c) 1980s
  • (d) 1990s
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1970s

    6. What are the aspirations of Siddharth in the film?
  • (a) Achieving political success
  • (b) Staging a revolution
  • (c) Pursuing personal wealth
  • (d) Promoting social transformation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Staging a revolution

    7. What is the primary goal of Vikram in the film?
  • (a) Achieving political success
  • (b) Pursuing personal wealth
  • (c) Promoting social transformation
  • (d) Becoming a revolutionary
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Pursuing personal wealth

    8. What are the characters’ responses to their respective goals?
  • (a) Both succeed
  • (b) Both fail
  • (c) Siddharth succeeds, Vikram fails
  • (d) Vikram succeeds, Siddharth fails
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Siddharth succeeds, Vikram fails

    9. What societal backdrop influences the characters in the film?
  • (a) Economic boom
  • (b) Political stability
  • (c) Idealism and expectations of the 1970s
  • (d) Technological advancements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Idealism and expectations of the 1970s

    10. What is the overall theme of the film as described in the passage?
  • (a) Success and failure
  • (b) Societal transformations
  • (c) Political disillusionment
  • (d) Historical reflections
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Political disillusionment

    1. What was Jagjivan Ram’s role during the period of 1977-1979?
  • (a) Labour Minister
  • (b) Prime Minister
  • (c) President
  • (d) Defence Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Labour Minister

    2. Which state did Jagjivan Ram represent as a Member of Parliament?
  • (a) Maharashtra
  • (b) Bihar
  • (c) Uttar Pradesh
  • (d) Madhya Pradesh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Bihar

    3. What was Jagjivan Ram’s contribution to the Indian government’s first ministry?
  • (a) Defence Minister
  • (b) Labour Minister
  • (c) Education Minister
  • (d) Foreign Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Labour Minister

    1. During which period did Chaudhary Charan Singh serve as Prime Minister of India?
  • (a) 1960-1970
  • (b) 1979-1980
  • (c) 1985-1986
  • (d) 1990-1991
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1979-1980

    2. Which state was Chaudhary Charan Singh active in politics?
  • (a) Bihar
  • (b) Uttar Pradesh
  • (c) Rajasthan
  • (d) Punjab
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh

    3. Which political party did Chaudhary Charan Singh found in 1967?
  • (a) Indian National Congress
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (c) Bharatiya Kranti Dal
  • (d) Janata Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Bharatiya Kranti Dal

    1. When did Morarji Desai serve as Prime Minister of India?
  • (a) 1950-1955
  • (b) 1960-1965
  • (c) 1977-1979
  • (d) 1985-1990
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 1977-1979

    2. Which political party did Morarji Desai join after the split in the Congress party?
  • (a) Congress (I)
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (c) Congress (O)
  • (d) Janata Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress (O)

    3. Which state did Morarji Desai serve as Chief Minister of?
  • (a) Uttar Pradesh
  • (b) Gujarat
  • (c) Maharashtra
  • (d) Bihar
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Gujarat

    1. What was the primary reason for the Railway Strike of 1974?
  • (a) Wage increase
  • (b) Improved working conditions
  • (c) Demand for bonus and service conditions
  • (d) Better retirement benefits
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Demand for bonus and service conditions

    2. Who led the National Coordination Committee for Railwaymen’s Struggle during the Railway Strike of 1974?
  • (a) Morarji Desai
  • (b) George Fernandes
  • (c) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) George Fernandes

    3. What action did the government take in response to the Railway Strike of 1974?
  • (a) Agreed to all the demands
  • (b) Deployed territorial army
  • (c) Ignored the strike
  • (d) Gave a substantial wage hike
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Deployed territorial army

    4. Which movement was Jayaprakash Narayan a leader of?
  • (a) Labour Movement
  • (b) Women’s Rights Movement
  • (c) Bihar Movement
  • (d) Green Revolution Movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Bihar Movement

    What movement was associated with the slogan “sampoorna Kranti ab nara hai, bhavi itihas hamara hai”?
  • (a) Civil Rights Movement
  • (b) Women’s Suffrage Movement
  • (c) Bihar Movement
  • (d) Environmental Movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Bihar Movement

    Which slogan was given by D. K. Barooah, President of the Congress, in 1974?
  • (a) “Jal Yojana”
  • (b) “Jal Nagari”
  • (c) “Indira is India, India is Indira”
  • (d) “Jal Kshetra”
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) “Indira is India, India is Indira”

    What was the content of the anonymous advertisement in the Times of India, soon after the declaration of Emergency in 1975?
  • (a) Jal Yojana
  • (b) Jal Nagari
  • (c) death of D. E. M. O’Cracy, mourned by his wife T. Ruth, his son L. I. Bertie, and his daughters Faith, Hope and Justice
  • (d) Jal Kshetra
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) death of D. E. M. O’Cracy, mourned by his wife T. Ruth, his son L. I. Bertie, and his daughters Faith, Hope and Justice

    What was the content of the advertisement in The Times, London, on 15 August 1975 by the ‘Free JP Campaign’?
  • (a) Jal Yojana
  • (b) Jal Nagari
  • (c) today is India’s Independence Day…Don’t Let the Lights Go Out on India’s Democracy
  • (d) Jal Kshetra
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) today is India’s Independence Day…Don’t Let the Lights Go Out on India’s Democracy

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    ]]>         CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM MCQs https://notesjobs.in/chapter-5-challenges-to-and-restoration-of-the-congress-system-mcqs/ Sat, 20 Jan 2024 06:28:15 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14725 CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM MCQs 1. What was the major concern regarding succession after Jawaharlal Nehru’s death in 1964? (a) Economic stability (b) Democratic survival (c) Foreign policy (d) Technological advancement Answer Answer: (b) Democratic survival 2. What was the primary fear regarding India’s democratic experiment after Nehru’s death? ... Read more

    The post CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM MCQs appeared first on .

    ]]>     CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM MCQs

    1. What was the major concern regarding succession after Jawaharlal Nehru’s death in 1964?
  • (a) Economic stability
  • (b) Democratic survival
  • (c) Foreign policy
  • (d) Technological advancement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Democratic survival

    2. What was the primary fear regarding India’s democratic experiment after Nehru’s death?
  • (a) Economic collapse
  • (b) Army intervention
  • (c) Cultural decline
  • (d) Technological stagnation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Army intervention

    3. What term is used to describe the 1960s in the context of India’s challenges?
  • (a) Prosperous decade
  • (b) Stable decade
  • (c) Dangerous decade
  • (d) Transformative decade
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Dangerous decade

    4. What were the unresolved problems mentioned in the 1960s that could threaten the democratic project?
  • (a) Technological issues
  • (b) Poverty, inequality, communal, and regional divisions
  • (c) Educational challenges
  • (d) Environmental concerns
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Poverty, inequality, communal, and regional divisions

    5. What was the potential consequence if India failed to manage a democratic succession after Nehru?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Political role for the army
  • (c) Technological advancement
  • (d) Cultural resurgence
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Political role for the army

    YouTube Playlist Embed
    1. Who played a crucial role in the smooth succession after Jawaharlal Nehru’s death?
  • (a) K. Kamraj
  • (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (c) Muhammad Ayub Khan
  • (d) Nehru’s family members
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) K. Kamraj

    2. Why was Lal Bahadur Shastri chosen as Nehru’s successor?
  • (a) He was Nehru’s family member
  • (b) He was a controversial leader
  • (c) There was consensus among Congress party leaders
  • (d) He was an economic expert
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) There was consensus among Congress party leaders

    3. What major challenges did India face during Lal Bahadur Shastri’s Prime Ministership?
  • (a) Cultural crisis
  • (b) Economic prosperity
  • (c) War with China
  • (d) Failed monsoons, drought, and food crisis
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Failed monsoons, drought, and food crisis

    4. What slogan is associated with Lal Bahadur Shastri’s resolve to face challenges during his Prime Ministership?
  • (a) Inquilab Zindabad
  • (b) Jai Hind
  • (c) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
  • (d) Satyamev Jayate
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

    5. How did Lal Bahadur Shastri’s Prime Ministership come to an end?
  • (a) Assassination
  • (b) Resignation
  • (c) Sudden death in Tashkent
  • (d) Overthrown in a coup
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Sudden death in Tashkent

    1. Who were the main contenders in the Congress party’s leadership competition after the sudden death of Lal Bahadur Shastri?
  • (a) K. Kamraj and Morarji Desai
  • (b) Indira Gandhi and Morarji Desai
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Morarji Desai
  • (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Morarji Desai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Indira Gandhi and Morarji Desai

    2. How was the competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi resolved within the Congress party?
  • (a) Through a public debate
  • (b) Through a secret ballot among Congress MPs
  • (c) Through a direct election by the public
  • (d) Through a party convention
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Through a secret ballot among Congress MPs

    3. What factor contributed to the senior Congress leaders’ decision to support Indira Gandhi in the leadership competition?
  • (a) Her economic expertise
  • (b) Her political inexperience
  • (c) Her association with Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (d) Her family background
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Her political inexperience

    4. What was seen as a sign of the maturity of India’s democracy during the leadership transition in the Congress party?
  • (a) Public protests
  • (b) International intervention
  • (c) Peaceful transition of power
  • (d) Military involvement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Peaceful transition of power

    5. What challenges did Indira Gandhi face within a year of becoming Prime Minister?
  • (a) Technological issues
  • (b) Economic deterioration and a Lok Sabha election
  • (c) International conflicts
  • (d) Environmental concerns
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic deterioration and a Lok Sabha election

    1. Why is the year 1967 considered a landmark in India’s political and electoral history?
  • (a) It marked the end of Congress party dominance
  • (b) It witnessed the rise of a new political party
  • (c) Two Prime Ministers died in quick succession
  • (d) It saw a significant increase in voter turnout
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) It marked the end of Congress party dominance

    2. What major changes occurred in the years leading up to the fourth general elections in 1967?
  • (a) Economic prosperity and stability
  • (b) Widespread drought and economic crisis
  • (c) Rise of a new political party
  • (d) Technological advancements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Widespread drought and economic crisis

    3. What was one of the first decisions taken by the Indira Gandhi government in response to the economic challenges?
  • (a) Increase in military expenditure
  • (b) Devaluation of the Indian rupee
  • (c) Expansion of foreign exchange reserves
  • (d) Implementation of a new agricultural policy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Devaluation of the Indian rupee

    4. What contributed to the economic crisis during the period preceding the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Increased agricultural production
  • (b) Successive failure of monsoons and serious food shortage
  • (c) Decline in military expenditure
  • (d) Rise in industrial production and exports
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Successive failure of monsoons and serious food shortage

    5. What impact did the devaluation of the Indian rupee have on its exchange rate with the US dollar?
  • (a) Decreased to less than Rs. 5
  • (b) Remained the same
  • (c) Increased to more than Rs. 7
  • (d) Tied to the gold standard
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Increased to more than Rs. 7

    1. What were the main reasons for the protests mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Increased government funding
  • (b) Decrease in essential commodity prices
  • (c) Growing unemployment and economic conditions
  • (d) Rise in public satisfaction
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Growing unemployment and economic conditions

    2. How did the government perceive the protests against the economic situation?
  • (a) As expressions of people’s problems
  • (b) As a law and order problem
  • (c) As positive contributions to policy-making
  • (d) As a sign of economic prosperity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) As a law and order problem

    3. What impact did the government’s perception of protests have on public sentiment?
  • (a) Increased public support
  • (b) Decreased public bitterness
  • (c) Reinforced popular unrest
  • (d) Enhanced economic conditions
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Reinforced popular unrest

    4. Which political parties initiated struggles for greater equality during this period?
  • (a) Congress and BJP
  • (b) Communist and socialist parties
  • (c) Nationalist and regional parties
  • (d) Liberal and conservative parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Communist and socialist parties

    5. What kind of struggles did the Communist Party of India (Marxist-Leninist) lead?
  • (a) Religious struggles
  • (b) Armed agrarian struggles
  • (c) Cultural struggles
  • (d) Economic struggles
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Armed agrarian struggles

    6. What significant event is mentioned in the passage regarding Hindu-Muslim relations during this period?
  • (a) Strengthening of communal harmony
  • (b) Formation of religious alliances
  • (c) Some of the worst Hindu-Muslim riots since Independence
  • (d) Resolution of religious conflicts
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Some of the worst Hindu-Muslim riots since Independence

    1. What term did Ram Manohar Lohia use to describe the strategy of opposition parties against the Congress?
  • (a) Congressism
  • (b) Non-Socialism
  • (c) Anti-Congressism
  • (d) Non-Congressism
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Non-Congressism

    2. Why did opposition parties form anti-Congress fronts and enter into electoral adjustments?
  • (a) To support Congress in power
  • (b) To divide their own votes
  • (c) To challenge the Congress rule
  • (d) To strengthen internal factionalism within the Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) To challenge the Congress rule

    3. What opportunity did opposition parties see in the inexperience of Indira Gandhi and factionalism within the Congress?
  • (a) An opportunity to strengthen Congress
  • (b) An opportunity to reclaim democracy
  • (c) An opportunity to form a new political party
  • (d) An opportunity to support undemocratic rule
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) An opportunity to reclaim democracy

    4. Who gave the strategy of opposition parties against the Congress the name ‘non-Congressism’?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Indira Gandhi
  • (c) Ram Manohar Lohia
  • (d) Morarji Desai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Ram Manohar Lohia

    5. What theoretical argument did Ram Manohar Lohia present in defense of ‘non-Congressism’?
  • (a) Congress rule was democratic
  • (b) Non-Congress parties should support Congress
  • (c) Congress rule was undemocratic and opposed to the interests of ordinary poor people
  • (d) Non-Congress parties should strengthen internal factionalism within the Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress rule was undemocratic and opposed to the interests of ordinary poor people

    1. When were the fourth general elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies held?
  • (a) 1952
  • (b) 1967
  • (c) 1975
  • (d) 1980
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1967

    2. Who was the Prime Minister when the fourth general elections were held?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Kamaraj
  • (c) Indira Gandhi
  • (d) S.K. Patil
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Indira Gandhi

    3. How did many contemporary political observers describe the results of the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Economic revolution
  • (b) Political earthquake
  • (c) Social transformation
  • (d) Cultural renaissance
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Political earthquake

    4. Which State saw a regional party, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK), coming to power for the first time in 1967?
  • (a) Punjab
  • (b) Haryana
  • (c) Tamil Nadu
  • (d) Uttar Pradesh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

    5. What was the reason behind the DMK’s rise to power in Tamil Nadu during the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Opposition to economic policies
  • (b) Anti-Hindi agitation against the imposition of Hindi
  • (c) Religious movements
  • (d) Support for Congress rule
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Anti-Hindi agitation against the imposition of Hindi

    6. In how many States did the Congress lose its majority during the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Four
  • (b) Six
  • (c) Seven
  • (d) Nine
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Seven

    7. What popular saying emerged after the 1967 elections regarding Congress-ruled States?
  • (a) “Unity in diversity”
  • (b) “Congress is invincible”
  • (c) “Congress dominates every State”
  • (d) “One could take a train from Delhi to Howrah and not pass through a single Congress ruled State”
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) “One could take a train from Delhi to Howrah and not pass through a single Congress ruled State”

    8. What was the overall impact of the 1967 elections on the Congress party?
  • (a) Increased majority in the Lok Sabha
  • (b) Lowest tally of seats and share of votes since 1952
  • (c) Strengthened internal factionalism
  • (d) Enhanced popularity of Indira Gandhi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Lowest tally of seats and share of votes since 1952

    1. What phenomenon became prominent in the elections of 1967?
  • (a) Single-party dominance
  • (b) Coalition governments
  • (c) One-party rule
  • (d) Bipartisanship
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Coalition governments

    2. What were the joint legislative parties supporting non-Congress governments called?
  • (a) Congress Vidhayak Dal
  • (b) Samyukt Vidhayak Dal
  • (c) Lok Sabha Dal
  • (d) Bharatiya Vidhayak Dal
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Samyukt Vidhayak Dal

    3. What term is used to describe governments formed by joint legislative parties supporting non-Congress governments?
  • (a) Congress Raj
  • (b) SVD governments
  • (c) Lok Sabha governments
  • (d) Coalition Raj
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) SVD governments

    4. In Bihar, which parties were part of the SVD government?
  • (a) Congress and Jana Sangh
  • (b) SSP, PSP, CPI, and Jana Sangh
  • (c) Sant group and Master group
  • (d) Akali parties and communist parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) SSP, PSP, CPI, and Jana Sangh

    5. What characterized most of the coalition partners in the SVD governments?
  • (a) Ideological congruence
  • (b) Centrist political views
  • (c) Regional affiliations
  • (d) Ideological incongruence
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Ideological incongruence

    1. What significant role did defections play in the politics after the 1967 general elections?
  • (a) Strengthened Congress rule
  • (b) Contributed to political stability
  • (c) Led to the making and unmaking of governments
  • (d) Enhanced ideological congruence
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Led to the making and unmaking of governments

    2. What does the term ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ refer to in the context of post-1967 politics?
  • (a) A famous political slogan
  • (b) A popular election symbol
  • (c) Constant realignments and shifting political loyalties
  • (d) A new political party formed in the period
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Constant realignments and shifting political loyalties

    3. How did breakaway Congress legislators influence the political scenario after the 1967 general election?
  • (a) By strengthening Congress governments
  • (b) By forming a new political party
  • (c) By playing a significant role in installing non-Congress governments
  • (d) By promoting ideological congruence
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) By playing a significant role in installing non-Congress governments

    4. What is the precise meaning of the term ‘defection’ in the political context mentioned?
  • (a) Formation of new political parties
  • (b) Elected representative joining another party
  • (c) Changing political ideologies
  • (d) Election boycotts
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Elected representative joining another party

    5. In which of the following states did breakaway Congress legislators play a crucial role in installing non-Congress governments after the 1967 general election?
  • (a) Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh
  • (b) Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh
  • (c) Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra
  • (d) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh

    1. What major change occurred in the Congress party’s political landscape after the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Increased majority at the Centre
  • (b) Retention of power in all States
  • (c) Reduced majority at the Centre and loss of power in many States
  • (d) Formation of non-Congress coalition governments in all States
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Reduced majority at the Centre and loss of power in many States

    2. Who posed the real challenge to Indira Gandhi after the 1967 elections?
  • (a) External opposition parties
  • (b) The ‘Syndicate’ within the Congress
  • (c) Non-Congress coalition leaders
  • (d) Regional political leaders
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) The ‘Syndicate’ within the Congress

    3. What role did the ‘Syndicate’ play in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister?
  • (a) Opposition against her election
  • (b) Ensuring her election as the leader of the parliamentary party
  • (c) Creating a new political party
  • (d) Imposing President’s rule
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Ensuring her election as the leader of the parliamentary party

    4. What action did Indira Gandhi take to assert her position within the government and the party?
  • (a) Forming a new political party
  • (b) Seeking advice from the ‘Syndicate’
  • (c) Choosing advisers from outside the party
  • (d) Collaborating with the opposition parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Choosing advisers from outside the party

    5. What expression emerged to describe the careful sidelining of the ‘Syndicate’ by Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) Syndicate politics
  • (b) Indira’s strategy
  • (c) ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’
  • (d) Syndicate exclusion
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’

    1. What were the two main challenges faced by Indira Gandhi after the 1967 elections?
  • (a) Economic crises and regional conflicts
  • (b) Independence from the Syndicate and regaining lost ground
  • (c) Ideological conflicts with the opposition
  • (d) Global diplomatic challenges and military threats
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Independence from the Syndicate and regaining lost ground

    2. What strategy did Indira Gandhi adopt to overcome the challenges she faced?
  • (a) Diplomatic negotiations
  • (b) Military intervention
  • (c) Economic reforms
  • (d) Converted a power struggle into an ideological struggle
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Converted a power struggle into an ideological struggle

    3. What Left-oriented initiatives did Indira Gandhi introduce to the government policy?
  • (a) Privatization of banks
  • (b) Social control of banks and nationalization of General Insurance
  • (c) Encouraging urban property ownership
  • (d) Reduction of public distribution of food grains
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Social control of banks and nationalization of General Insurance

    4. What key elements were included in the Ten Point Programme adopted by the Congress Working Committee in May 1967?
  • (a) Free-market reforms
  • (b) Military modernization
  • (c) Social control of banks, land reforms, and provision of house sites to the rural poor
  • (d) Tax cuts and deregulation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Social control of banks, land reforms, and provision of house sites to the rural poor

    5. How did the ‘syndicate’ leaders respond to the Left-wing programme adopted by the Congress Working Committee?
  • (a) Strongly endorsed the programme
  • (b) Formally approved with reservations
  • (c) Rejected the programme outright
  • (d) Proposed an alternative programme
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Formally approved with reservations

    1. What event triggered the factional rivalry between the Syndicate and Indira Gandhi in 1969?
  • (a) Lok Sabha elections
  • (b) President Zakir Hussain’s death
  • (c) Nationalization of private banks
  • (d) Abolition of the ‘privy purse’
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) President Zakir Hussain’s death

    2. Who was nominated as the official Congress candidate for the Presidential elections in 1969?
  • (a) V.V. Giri
  • (b) Morarji Desai
  • (c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

    3. Who filed his nomination as an independent candidate in the Presidential elections, encouraged by Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) Morarji Desai
  • (b) V.V. Giri
  • (c) Zakir Hussain
  • (d) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) V.V. Giri

    4. What significant policy measures did Indira Gandhi announce during the Presidential election campaign?
  • (a) Privatization of banks
  • (b) Nationalization of private banks and abolition of the ‘privy purse’
  • (c) Special privileges for former princes
  • (d) Reduction of public distribution of food grains
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Nationalization of private banks and abolition of the ‘privy purse’

    5. Who was the Deputy Prime Minister and Finance Minister who left the government due to serious differences with the Prime Minister?
  • (a) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
  • (b) V.V. Giri
  • (c) Zakir Hussain
  • (d) Morarji Desai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Morarji Desai

    6. What was the outcome of the Presidential election in 1969?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi was elected as President
  • (b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy won as an independent candidate
  • (c) V.V. Giri won as an independent candidate
  • (d) Morarji Desai became President
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) V.V. Giri won as an independent candidate

    1. What event marked the showdown between different factions within the Congress during the Presidential elections?
  • (a) Split in the Congress
  • (b) The resignation of the Prime Minister
  • (c) Differences over economic policies
  • (d) The issuance of a ‘whip’ by S. Nijalingappa
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Split in the Congress

    2. Who issued a ‘whip’ directing Congress MPs and MLAs to vote in favor of Sanjeeva Reddy, the official candidate of the party?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) V.V. Giri
  • (c) S. Nijalingappa
  • (d) The Prime Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) S. Nijalingappa

    3. Why did the supporters of Indira Gandhi come to be known as ‘requisitionists’?
  • (a) They demanded a special meeting of the AICC
  • (b) They supported the official candidate, Sanjeeva Reddy
  • (c) They called for a ‘conscience vote’
  • (d) They were expelled from the party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) They demanded a special meeting of the AICC

    4. Who openly called for a ‘conscience vote’ during the Presidential elections?
  • (a) Sanjeeva Reddy
  • (b) S. Nijalingappa
  • (c) V.V. Giri
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi

    5. What did the victory of V.V. Giri in the Presidential election formalize within the Congress?
  • (a) Unity between different factions
  • (b) Expulsion of the Prime Minister from the party
  • (c) The split in the party
  • (d) S. Nijalingappa’s leadership
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) The split in the party

    6. How did Indira Gandhi project the split within the Congress?
  • (a) As a power struggle
  • (b) As an ideological divide between socialists and conservatives
  • (c) As a conflict between two rival parties
  • (d) As a battle for the Prime Minister’s position
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) As an ideological divide between socialists and conservatives

    1. What event led to the reduction of the Indira Gandhi government to a minority?
  • (a) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
  • (b) The split in the Congress
  • (c) Restoration of Congress
  • (d) Issue-based support from other parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) The split in the Congress

    2. What was the basis for the support that kept the Indira Gandhi government in office during the period of reduced majority?
  • (a) Support from the opposition parties
  • (b) Strong socialist credentials
  • (c) Coalition government
  • (d) Issue-based support from a few parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Issue-based support from a few parties

    3. What significant move did Indira Gandhi’s government make to seek a popular mandate for her programs and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament?
  • (a) Implementation of land reforms
  • (b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
  • (c) Formation of a coalition government
  • (d) Restoring Congress unity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha

    4. What was the result of the fifth general election to the Lok Sabha held in February 1971?
  • (a) Defeat of the Indira Gandhi government
  • (b) Strengthening of opposition parties
  • (c) Restoration of Congress unity
  • (d) Indira Gandhi’s government gaining a popular mandate
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi’s government gaining a popular mandate

    5. What was a notable focus of Indira Gandhi’s government during the period when it sought to project its socialist credentials?
  • (a) Economic liberalization
  • (b) Land reform laws
  • (c) Privatization
  • (d) Foreign policy initiatives
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Land reform laws

    1. What was the electoral alliance formed by major non-communist, non-Congress opposition parties against Congress(R) in the mentioned elections?
  • (a) Grand Alliance
  • (b) Democratic Front
  • (c) National Coalition
  • (d) People’s Unity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Grand Alliance

    2. What was the main political programme lacking in the Grand Alliance, as per the description?
  • (a) Economic liberalization
  • (b) Indira Hatao (Remove Indira)
  • (c) Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty)
  • (d) Socialist reforms
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Indira Hatao (Remove Indira)

    3. What positive slogan did Indira Gandhi put forward as part of her electoral strategy?
  • (a) Swadeshi Bachao (Save Indigenous)
  • (b) Desh Badal Raha Hai (Country is Changing)
  • (c) Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty)
  • (d) Samriddhi Ki Ore (Towards Prosperity)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty)

    4. Which political group had the perception of having the real organisational strength of the Congress party?
  • (a) Congress(R)
  • (b) Congress(O)
  • (c) Grand Alliance
  • (d) Swatantra Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress(O)

    5. What did Indira Gandhi attempt to build through her political strategy during this period?
  • (a) Regional alliances
  • (b) Corporate support
  • (c) An independent nationwide political support base
  • (d) Military alliances
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) An independent nationwide political support base

    6. What was the main focus of the political programmes associated with the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
  • (a) Privatization
  • (b) Growth of the public sector
  • (c) Removal of disparities in income and opportunity
  • (d) Military reforms
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Removal of disparities in income and opportunity

    7. What term is used to describe the new faction of Congress in the mentioned content?
  • (a) Congress Alliance
  • (b) Grand Congress
  • (c) Congress(R)
  • (d) New Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress(R)

    1. What was the outcome of the Lok Sabha elections of 1971 in terms of seats and votes won by the Congress(R)-CPI alliance?
  • (a) 352 seats and 44% votes
  • (b) 375 seats and 48.4% votes
  • (c) 16 seats and less than 25% votes
  • (d) 40 seats and combined 48.4% votes
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 375 seats and 48.4% votes

    2. How did the performance of Congress(O) compare with Congress(R) in terms of votes and seats in the 1971 Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Congress(O) won more seats and votes
  • (b) Congress(O) won fewer seats and votes
  • (c) Both Congress(O) and Congress(R) had equal votes and seats
  • (d) Congress(O) secured a majority in Lok Sabha
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress(O) won fewer seats and votes

    3. What crisis occurred soon after the 1971 Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Economic crisis
  • (b) Political crisis in South India
  • (c) Crisis in East Pakistan leading to the Indo-Pak war
  • (d) Border conflict with China
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Crisis in East Pakistan leading to the Indo-Pak war

    4. What did the events of 1971, including the Indo-Pak war and the establishment of Bangladesh, add to Indira Gandhi’s popularity?
  • (a) Decreased popularity
  • (b) Controversy
  • (c) Opposition from neighboring countries
  • (d) Increased popularity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Increased popularity

    5. What slogan was associated with Indira Gandhi’s positive political agenda during the 1971 elections?
  • (a) Congress for Progress
  • (b) Congress Unity
  • (c) Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty)
  • (d) Grand Alliance for Development
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty)

    6. What term is used to describe the combined tally of seats won by the Grand Alliance in the Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Grand Victory
  • (b) Dramatic Outcome
  • (c) Grand Failure
  • (d) Opposition Triumph
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Grand Failure

    What did the State Assembly elections held in 1972 indicate about the political landscape in India?
  • (a) Congress faced defeat in most states
  • (b) The dominance of Congress was restored
  • (c) Rise of regional parties
  • (d) Emergence of a new political ideology
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) The dominance of Congress was restored

    What term is used to describe the split in the Congress party after the 1971 elections?
  • (a) Internal Conflict
  • (b) Syndicate Crisis
  • (c) Organisational Divide
  • (d) Old Congress and New Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Old Congress and New Congress

    1. What did Indira Gandhi do to restore the Congress system?
  • (a) Revived the old Congress party
  • (b) Reinvented the party with a strong organizational structure
  • (c) Relied on multiple factions for diverse opinions
  • (d) Depended on the popularity of multiple leaders
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Reinvented the party with a strong organizational structure

    2. What was the nature of the new Congress party under Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) Inclusive with many factions
  • (b) Weak organizational structure
  • (c) Dependent on opposition parties
  • (d) Absorbed all kinds of opinions and interests
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Weak organizational structure

    3. Who were the primary supporters of the new Congress party?
  • (a) Rich and influential
  • (b) Opposition parties
  • (c) Poor, women, Dalits, Adivasis, and minorities
  • (d) Youth and students
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Poor, women, Dalits, Adivasis, and minorities

    4. What impact did the restoration of the Congress system have on democratic expression?
  • (a) Expanded spaces for democratic expression
  • (b) Maintained the status quo in democratic expression
  • (c) Shrank spaces for democratic expression
  • (d) Encouraged diverse political opinions
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Shrank spaces for democratic expression

    5. What is highlighted as a consequence of the political crisis mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Emergence of a multi-party system
  • (b) Strengthening of constitutional democracy
  • (c) Threatening the existence of constitutional democracy
  • (d) Expansion of democratic ideals
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Threatening the existence of constitutional democracy

    1. What is the central theme of the film described in the passage?
  • (a) Romantic relationships
  • (b) Political intrigue
  • (c) Moral values and revenge
  • (d) Science fiction
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Moral values and revenge

    2. Who is the protagonist of the film?
  • (a) Jaya Bhaduri
  • (b) Pran
  • (c) Ajit
  • (d) Vijay (Amitabh Bachchan)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Vijay (Amitabh Bachchan)

    3. What is the year of the film’s release?
  • (a) 1967
  • (b) 1973
  • (c) 1980
  • (d) 1995
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1973

    4. What trend did the film set in the seventies?
  • (a) Romantic comedies
  • (b) Action thrillers
  • (c) Social dramas
  • (d) ‘Angry young man’
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) ‘Angry young man’

    5. Who provided the screenplay for the film?
  • (a) Amitabh Bachchan
  • (b) Prakash Mehra
  • (c) Jaya Bhaduri
  • (d) Javed Akhtar
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Javed Akhtar

    1. What was the grant given to the rulers’ families after the dissolution of princely rule called?
  • (a) Royal Compensation
  • (b) Privy Purse
  • (c) Monarch Allowance
  • (d) Heritage Compensation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Privy Purse

    2. Why did Nehru express dissatisfaction with the privy purse system?
  • (a) Due to excessive grants
  • (b) It violated constitutional principles
  • (c) Lack of transparency
  • (d) Opposition from the princely rulers
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) It violated constitutional principles

    3. Who opposed the abolition of privy purses, calling it a ‘breach of faith with the princes’?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) Nehru
  • (c) Rajya Sabha
  • (d) Morarji Desai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Morarji Desai

    4. Which Constitutional amendment paved the way for the removal of legal obstacles to abolish privy purses?
  • (a) 24th Amendment
  • (b) 42nd Amendment
  • (c) 51st Amendment
  • (d) 73rd Amendment
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) 24th Amendment

    5. What did Indira Gandhi turn the abolition of privy purses into during the 1971 election?
  • (a) A constitutional debate
  • (b) A diplomatic issue
  • (c) A major election issue
  • (d) A foreign policy concern
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) A major election issue

    6. What happened to the Constitutional amendment proposed in 1970?
  • (a) Passed in Rajya Sabha
  • (b) Struck down by the Supreme Court
  • (c) Became law without any issues
  • (d) Passed with amendments
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Struck down by the Supreme Court

    7. What was the outcome of the 1971 election in relation to the privy purse issue?
  • (a) Public opposition increased
  • (b) It was not mentioned during the election
  • (c) Indira Gandhi’s popularity declined
  • (d) Constitution amended to remove legal obstacles
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Constitution amended to remove legal obstacles

    1. What term does S. Nijalingappa use to describe the tragedy that overtakes democracy?
  • (a) Political Narcissism
  • (b) Democratic Organisation
  • (c) Popular Wave
  • (d) Unscrupulous Sycophants
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Political Narcissism

    2. What action did S. Nijalingappa take against Indira Gandhi in response to the perceived tragedy?
  • (a) Sent a letter of support
  • (b) Wrote a book
  • (c) Expelled her from the party
  • (d) Joined her political movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Expelled her from the party

    3. What date is mentioned in S. Nijalingappa’s letter when he expelled Indira Gandhi from the party?
  • (a) 11 November 1969
  • (b) 1 January 1970
  • (c) 22 October 1968
  • (d) 5 March 1971
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) 11 November 1969

    1. What was V.V. Giri’s role after the death of President Zakir Hussain?
  • (a) Became Prime Minister
  • (b) Appointed Governor
  • (c) Served as Acting President
  • (d) Formed a new political party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Served as Acting President

    2. What position did V.V. Giri hold in the Union cabinet before contesting the presidential election?
  • (a) Finance Minister
  • (b) Foreign Minister
  • (c) Labour Minister
  • (d) Defense Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Labour Minister

    3. Which state did V.V. Giri serve as Governor before contesting the presidential election?
  • (a) Uttar Pradesh
  • (b) Kerala
  • (c) Karnataka
  • (d) Andhra Pradesh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Kerala

    4. What support did V.V. Giri receive from Indira Gandhi during the presidential election?
  • (a) No support
  • (b) Opposition
  • (c) Neutral stance
  • (d) Support for his election as President
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Support for his election as President

    5. During which years did V.V. Giri serve as the President of India?
  • (a) 1969 to 1973
  • (b) 1971 to 1976
  • (c) 1967 to 1969
  • (d) 1972 to 1977
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) 1969 to 1974

    1. What was Karpoori Thakur known for during his second term as Chief Minister of Bihar?
  • (a) Introducing reservations for backward classes
  • (b) Implementing language reforms
  • (c) Initiating agricultural policies
  • (d) Advocating for industrial development
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Introducing reservations for backward classes

    2. Which movement led by Jayaprakash Narayan did Karpoori Thakur actively participate in?
  • (a) Quit India Movement
  • (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
  • (c) Movement for linguistic states
  • (d) JP Movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) JP Movement

    3. What were Karpoori Thakur’s views on the use of the English language?
  • (a) Strong supporter
  • (b) Neutral stance
  • (c) Mild opposition
  • (d) Strong opponent
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Strong opponent

    4. In which periods did Karpoori Thakur serve as the Chief Minister of Bihar?
  • (a) 1965-1970 and 1975-1980
  • (b) 1970-1975 and 1979-1984
  • (c) 1970-1971 and 1977-1979
  • (d) 1967-1972 and 1977-1981
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 1970-1971 and 1977-1979

    1. What role did S. Nijalingappa play during 1968-71?
  • (a) Prime Minister of India
  • (b) President of Congress
  • (c) Chief Minister of Karnataka
  • (d) Governor of Mysore State
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) President of Congress

    2. Which legislative body was S. Nijalingappa a member of?
  • (a) Rajya Sabha
  • (b) Lok Sabha
  • (c) Karnataka Legislative Assembly
  • (d) Mysore State Council
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Karnataka Legislative Assembly

    3. What is S. Nijalingappa regarded as in the context of Karnataka?
  • (a) Chief Architect of Karnataka
  • (b) Father of Karnataka
  • (c) Maker of modern Karnataka
  • (d) Pioneer of Karnataka
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Maker of modern Karnataka

    1. Who led the Congress ‘Syndicate’?
  • (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (b) K. Kamraj
  • (c) Indira Gandhi
  • (d) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) K. Kamraj

    2. Which State leader was part of the Congress ‘Syndicate’?
  • (a) S. K. Patil
  • (b) Atulya Ghosh
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

    3. Who was the President of the Congress party and leader of the ‘Syndicate’?
  • (a) Indira Gandhi
  • (b) K. Kamraj
  • (c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
  • (d) S. K. Patil
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) K. Kamraj

    4. Which party did the leaders of the ‘Syndicate’ align with after the Congress split?
  • (a) Congress (R)
  • (b) BJP
  • (c) Congress (O)
  • (d) Communist Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress (O)

    5. What happened to the power and prestige of the leaders of the ‘Syndicate’ after 1971?
  • (a) Increased
  • (b) Unchanged
  • (c) Decreased
  • (d) Transformed
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Decreased

    1. What was the ‘Kamaraj plan’ proposed by K. Kamaraj?
  • (a) A plan for economic development
  • (b) A plan for political reform
  • (c) A plan for educational improvement
  • (d) A plan for healthcare
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) A plan for political reform

    2. Which Indian state did K. Kamaraj serve as Chief Minister?
  • (a) Maharashtra
  • (b) Tamil Nadu
  • (c) Karnataka
  • (d) West Bengal
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

    3. What significant contribution did K. Kamaraj make to education in Madras province?
  • (a) Introduced a mid-day meal scheme
  • (b) Established new universities
  • (c) Encouraged vocational training
  • (d) Promoted sports education
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Introduced a mid-day meal scheme

    4. What was K. Kamaraj’s role in Congress besides being the Chief Minister?
  • (a) Congress Treasurer
  • (b) Congress General Secretary
  • (c) Congress President
  • (d) Congress Vice President
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Congress President

    1. What does the expression ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ signify in Indian politics?
  • (a) A religious saying
  • (b) A political tactic
  • (c) A cultural tradition
  • (d) A historical event
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) A political tactic

    2. Who was Gaya Lal, and why did the expression originate?
  • (a) A cartoonist who created political cartoons
  • (b) An MLA known for frequent floor-crossing
  • (c) A political leader who amended the Constitution
  • (d) A scholar who studied Indian political history
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) An MLA known for frequent floor-crossing

    3. Who immortalized the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’?
  • (a) Gaya Lal himself
  • (b) Rao Birendra Singh
  • (c) A political cartoonist
  • (d) United Front party leaders
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Rao Birendra Singh

    4. What was the origin of the term ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ based on the provided context?
  • (a) Aya Ram’s defection from Congress to United Front
  • (b) Gaya Ram’s frequent changes of political allegiance
  • (c) A religious ceremony in Haryana
  • (d) A political convention in Chandigarh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Gaya Ram’s frequent changes of political allegiance

    5. What action was taken later to prevent defections in Indian politics?
  • (a) Introduction of a new political party
  • (b) Creation of a political cartoon series
  • (c) Amendment to the Constitution
  • (d) Formation of a coalition government
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Amendment to the Constitution

    1. What role did Ram Manohar Lohia play in the Indian political landscape?
  • (a) Founder of the Indian National Congress
  • (b) Leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  • (c) Socialist leader and thinker
  • (d) Chief Minister of a state
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Socialist leader and thinker

    2. Which political parties was Ram Manohar Lohia associated with after the split in the Indian National Congress?
  • (a) Communist Party of India
  • (b) Samyukta Socialist Party
  • (c) Swatantra Party
  • (d) Janata Dal
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Samyukta Socialist Party

    3. What was one of Ram Manohar Lohia’s notable contributions as a political leader?
  • (a) Advocacy of non-Congressism
  • (b) Founding the Congress Socialist Party
  • (c) Membership in Lok Sabha from 1963-67
  • (d) Support for princely privileges
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Advocacy of non-Congressism

    4. What were the key publications associated with Ram Manohar Lohia?
  • (a) The Indian Express and The Hindustan Times
  • (b) Mankind and Jan
  • (c) Young India and Harijan
  • (d) Swaraj and Bande Mataram
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Mankind and Jan

    1. What role did C. Natarajan Annadurai play in Tamil Nadu’s political landscape?
  • (a) Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu)
  • (b) Founder of the Justice Party
  • (c) Leader of the Swatantra Party
  • (d) Governor of Tamil Nadu
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu)

    2. Which political party did C. Natarajan Annadurai form in 1949?
  • (a) Justice Party
  • (b) Congress Party
  • (c) Dravid Kazagham
  • (d) Swaraj Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Dravid Kazagham

    3. What was C. Natarajan Annadurai’s stance on the issue of language imposition?
  • (a) Advocate for the imposition of Hindi
  • (b) Leader of the anti-Hindi agitations
  • (c) Supporter of English as the sole official language
  • (d) Promoter of Sanskrit language
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Leader of the anti-Hindi agitations

    1. What does Neville Maxwell express concern about in the quoted article?
  • (a) The success of India’s democratic experiment
  • (b) The role of the army in Indian politics
  • (c) The failure of maintaining an ordered structure in society
  • (d) The disintegration of Indian democracy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) The failure of maintaining an ordered structure in society

    2. In which year was the article ‘India’s Disintegrating Democracy’ published by Neville Maxwell?
  • (a) 1967
  • (b) 1971
  • (c) 1969
  • (d) 1965
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) 1967

    3. Which political parties were the main contenders in the Chomu constituency during the 1967 assembly elections?
  • (a) Congress and Communist Party
  • (b) Congress and Swatantra Party
  • (c) BJP and Swatantra Party
  • (d) Congress and Janata Dal
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress and Swatantra Party

    4. Who was emerging as the more popular leader in the village Devisar during the elections?
  • (a) Mohan Lal Sukhadia
  • (b) Sher Singh
  • (c) Bhim Singh
  • (d) Neville Maxwell
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Bhim Singh

    5. What did Bhim Singh achieve through alliances in the village Devisar?
  • (a) Formation of a new political party
  • (b) Support from traditional leaders
  • (c) Establishment of a new school
  • (d) Alliance of Rajputs and non-Rajputs
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Alliance of Rajputs and non-Rajputs

    6. Who did Sher Singh support in the elections?
  • (a) Bhim Singh
  • (b) Mohan Lal Sukhadia
  • (c) Congress candidate
  • (d) Swatantra candidate
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Swatantra candidate

    7. What was the relationship between Sher Singh and Bhim Singh in the village Devisar?
  • (a) Father and son
  • (b) Brothers
  • (c) Uncle and nephew
  • (d) Cousins
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Uncle and nephew

    8. What initiative did Bhim Singh take regarding the Congress candidate in the Assembly election?
  • (a) Supported the candidate
  • (b) Opposed the candidate
  • (c) Boycotted the election
  • (d) Supported the Swatantra candidate
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Supported the candidate

    9. Who was the State Chief Minister and Congress leader Bhim Singh approached regarding the Congress candidate?
  • (a) Sher Singh
  • (b) Mohan Lal Sukhadia
  • (c) Neville Maxwell
  • (d) C. Natarajan Annadurai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Mohan Lal Sukhadia

    10. What did Bhim Singh gain by supporting the Congress candidate?
  • (a) Direct contacts with the Prime Minister
  • (b) Direct contacts with a minister
  • (c) Ownership of a new school
  • (d) Leadership of the Swatantra Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Direct contacts with a minister

    11. What did Sher Singh promise the people of Devisar if they supported the Swatantra candidate?
  • (a) Formation of a new political party
  • (b) Development of the village school
  • (c) Support for the Congress candidate
  • (d) Alliance with Bhim Singh
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Development of the village school

    12. What significant change did the Constitution undergo to prevent defections?
  • (a) Amendment to the Preamble
  • (b) Introduction of new articles
  • (c) Establishment of a bicameral legislature
  • (d) Amendment to prevent defections
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Amendment to prevent defections

    1. What was Indira Gandhi credited with in the provided content?
  • (a) Nationalization of airlines
  • (b) Abolition of Privy Purse
  • (c) Introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  • (d) Construction of the Green Revolution
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Abolition of Privy Purse

    2. In which years did Indira Gandhi serve as the Prime Minister of India?
  • (a) 1964-1971 and 1975-1980
  • (b) 1950-1962 and 1985-1989
  • (c) 1977-1979 and 1985-1989
  • (d) 1966-1977 and 1980-1984
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) 1966-1977 and 1980-1984

    3. Which slogan is associated with Indira Gandhi in the provided content?
  • (a) Jai Hind
  • (b) Satyameva Jayate
  • (c) Garibi Hatao
  • (d) Swachh Bharat
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Garibi Hatao

    4. What major policy initiative is mentioned in the content regarding Indira Gandhi?
  • (a) Privatization of public sector units
  • (b) Abolition of land reforms
  • (c) Nationalization of banks
  • (d) Dismantling of environmental regulations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Nationalization of banks

    5. What event is mentioned as a credit to Indira Gandhi in the content?
  • (a) Successful conduct of the first general elections in India
  • (b) Victory in the 1971 war
  • (c) Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  • (d) Abolition of the caste system
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Victory in the 1971 war

    1. What was Lal Bahadur Shastri’s responsibility in the Union Cabinet that led to his resignation?
  • (a) Defense Minister
  • (b) Finance Minister
  • (c) Railway Minister
  • (d) Foreign Minister
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Railway Minister

    2. In which year did Lal Bahadur Shastri coin the famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan-Jai Kisan’?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1951
  • (c) 1965
  • (d) 1971
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 1965

    3. What role did Lal Bahadur Shastri play in the Congress party before becoming the Prime Minister?
  • (a) Treasurer
  • (b) General Secretary
  • (c) President
  • (d) Chief Whip
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) General Secretary

    1. According to The Guardian editorial, how did the appointment of the new Prime Minister of India compare to the new Prime Minister of Britain?
  • (a) It was delayed and lacked dignity
  • (b) It was quicker and more dignified
  • (c) It was delayed but dignified
  • (d) It was quicker but lacked dignity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) It was quicker and more dignified

    2. Why did Lal Bahadur Shastri resign from the Union Cabinet in 1956?
  • (a) Health issues
  • (b) Taking responsibility for a railway accident
  • (c) Political disagreements
  • (d) Retirement from politics
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Taking responsibility for a railway accident

    3. In which year did Lal Bahadur Shastri coin the famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan-Jai Kisan’?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1951
  • (c) 1965
  • (d) 1971
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 1965

    4. What role did Lal Bahadur Shastri play in the UP cabinet before becoming the Prime Minister?
  • (a) Chief Minister
  • (b) Home Minister
  • (c) Finance Minister
  • (d) Minister of Agriculture
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Minister of Agriculture

    5. What was the duration of Lal Bahadur Shastri’s term as Prime Minister of India?
  • (a) 1964-1965
  • (b) 1965-1966
  • (c) 1966-1967
  • (d) 1967-1968
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1965-1966

    1. What was the original election symbol of the Congress party?
  • (a) Lion
  • (b) Pair of Bullocks
  • (c) Lotus
  • (d) Hand
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Pair of Bullocks

    2. According to the provided content, what does the famous cartoon depict?
  • (a) Congress leaders in a meeting
  • (b) Head-on confrontation within the Congress
  • (c) A symbol of national unity
  • (d) Changes in election symbols over the years
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Head-on confrontation within the Congress

    1. What is the focus of Chapter Two as mentioned in the content?
  • (a) Emergence of opposition parties
  • (b) Congress system challenges
  • (c) Political transition after Nehru
  • (d) Unity within the Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Political transition after Nehru

    2. What challenges did the Congress face during the 1960s?
  • (a) Strong opposition and internal divisions
  • (b) Lack of political competition
  • (c) Dominance over other parties
  • (d) Support from the opposition
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Strong opposition and internal divisions

    3. What is the objective of this chapter, as mentioned in the content?
  • (a) Describing opposition unity
  • (b) Analysing new policies and ideologies
  • (c) Understanding Congress dominance
  • (d) Explaining political transition
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Explaining political transition

    4. Who led the new Congress that emerged during the challenges?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Sardar Patel
  • (c) Indira Gandhi
  • (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Indira Gandhi

    5. What facilitated the restoration of the Congress system?
  • (a) Increased opposition unity
  • (b) Split within the Congress
  • (c) New policies and ideologies
  • (d) Decline in political competition
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) New policies and ideologies

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    ]]>         CHAPTER 4 INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS MCQs https://notesjobs.in/chapter-4-indias-external-relations-mcqs/ Tue, 16 Jan 2024 08:15:21 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14696 CHAPTER 4 INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS MCQs 1. What were the twin challenges faced by most new nations emerging after the collapse of colonialism? (a) Economic growth and military dominance (b) Welfare and democracy (c) Technological advancement and cultural preservation (d) Industrialization and political stability Answer Answer: (b) Welfare and democracy 2. What was the primary ... Read more

    The post CHAPTER 4 INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS MCQs appeared first on .

    ]]>     CHAPTER 4 INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS MCQs

    1. What were the twin challenges faced by most new nations emerging after the collapse of colonialism?
  • (a) Economic growth and military dominance
  • (b) Welfare and democracy
  • (c) Technological advancement and cultural preservation
  • (d) Industrialization and political stability
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Welfare and democracy

    2. What was the primary aim of India’s foreign policy in the period immediately after Independence?
  • (a) Military dominance
  • (b) Economic growth
  • (c) Respect the sovereignty of all nations and achieve security through peace
  • (d) Establish a global empire
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Respect the sovereignty of all nations and achieve security through peace

    3. What legacy did the British government leave behind in terms of international disputes for India?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Technological advancements
  • (c) International disputes
  • (d) Military alliances
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) International disputes

    4. What major event created additional pressures for India after Independence?
  • (a) World War I
  • (b) World War II
  • (c) The Cold War
  • (d) Partition
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Partition

    5. Which document echoes India’s aim to respect the sovereignty of all other nations and achieve security through the maintenance of peace?
  • (a) Preamble of the Constitution
  • (b) United Nations Charter
  • (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
  • (d) Shimla Agreement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy

    6. In the post-Independence period, what were the global issues that the world was grappling with?
  • (a) Agricultural reforms
  • (b) Issues of reconstruction after a devastating war
  • (c) Technological advancements
  • (d) Cultural exchange programs
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Issues of reconstruction after a devastating war

    YouTube Playlist Embed
    1. What major historical event influenced the foreign policy of developing nations immediately after the Second World War?
  • (a) The Renaissance
  • (b) The Industrial Revolution
  • (c) The French Revolution
  • (d) The Cold War
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) The Cold War

    2. What were the primary goals pursued by developing countries in the international system due to their lack of resources?
  • (a) Military dominance
  • (b) Modest goals, focusing on peace and development
  • (c) Cultural exchange programs
  • (d) Technological advancements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Modest goals, focusing on peace and development

    3. What factor occasionally influences the foreign policy of developing countries, according to the passage?
  • (a) Religious ideologies
  • (b) Economic and security dependence on powerful states
  • (c) Technological advancements
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic and security dependence on powerful states

    4. During the post-Second World War period, how were countries of the world divided in terms of foreign policy influence?
  • (a) East and West
  • (b) North and South
  • (c) Developed and underdeveloped
  • (d) Democratic and authoritarian
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) East and West

    5. What international movement is mentioned as an experiment in the book on Contemporary World Politics?
  • (a) Green Revolution
  • (b) Non-Aligned Movement
  • (c) Industrial Revolution
  • (d) Human Rights Movement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Non-Aligned Movement

    6. What changed the context of international relations entirely, according to the passage?
  • (a) The French Revolution
  • (b) The Cold War
  • (c) The Non-Aligned Movement
  • (d) The end of the Cold War
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) The end of the Cold War

    1. What global movements did the Indian national movement contribute to?
  • (a) Industrial Revolution
  • (b) Struggle against colonialism and imperialism
  • (c) Human Rights Movement
  • (d) Technological advancements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Struggle against colonialism and imperialism

    2. What was the Indian National Army (INA) and who was its founder?
  • (a) A political party formed during independence
  • (b) A military force formed during the Second World War by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
  • (c) An economic organization supporting independence
  • (d) A cultural movement during the freedom struggle
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) A military force formed during the Second World War by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

    3. What marked the beginning of the Cold War era?
  • (a) India’s Independence
  • (b) The creation of the UN
  • (c) The establishment of the Indian National Army
  • (d) The political, economic, and military confrontation between the US and USSR
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) India’s Independence

    4. What significant developments occurred during the Cold War era, as mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) The Renaissance
  • (b) The creation of nuclear weapons
  • (c) The emergence of Communist China
  • (d) Both (b) and (c)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

    5. How did India’s struggle for freedom influence its foreign policy?
  • (a) It had no influence
  • (b) It led to increased military alliances
  • (c) It reflected noble ideals and influenced foreign policy
  • (d) It focused solely on economic growth
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) It reflected noble ideals and influenced foreign policy

    6. What major confrontation characterized the Cold War era?
  • (a) Economic competition
  • (b) Military alliances
  • (c) Political, economic, and military confrontation between the US and USSR
  • (d) Technological advancements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Political, economic, and military confrontation between the US and USSR

    7. What was the worldwide context of the Indian national movement?
  • (a) Isolation
  • (b) Struggle against colonialism and imperialism
  • (c) Industrial Revolution
  • (d) Economic growth
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Struggle against colonialism and imperialism

    8. What major event coincided with India’s attainment of independence?
  • (a) The Cold War era
  • (b) The creation of the UN
  • (c) The emergence of Communist China
  • (d) The beginning of decolonization
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) The Cold War era

    1. Who served as the first Prime Minister and Foreign Minister of India, playing a crucial role in setting the national agenda?
  • (a) Sardar Patel
  • (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (c) Dr Ambedkar
  • (d) Swatantra Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

    2. What were the three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy?
  • (a) Military dominance, economic growth, and cultural preservation
  • (b) Preserve sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development
  • (c) Establish a global empire, maintain military alliances, and support communism
  • (d) Focus on technological advancements, form military blocs, and follow a pro-US policy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Preserve sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development

    3. Which strategy did Nehru aim to pursue to achieve the objectives of his foreign policy?
  • (a) Military alliances
  • (b) Cultural exchange programs
  • (c) Nonalignment
  • (d) Economic dominance
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Nonalignment

    4. Who among the political leaders believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US due to its claim of being pro-democracy?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Dr Ambedkar
  • (c) Sardar Patel
  • (d) Swatantra Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Dr Ambedkar

    5. Which political parties were opposed to communism and advocated a pro-US foreign policy?
  • (a) Bharatiya Jan Sangh and Swatantra Party
  • (b) Indian National Congress and Communist Party of India
  • (c) Rashtriya Janata Dal and Bahujan Samaj Party
  • (d) All India Trinamool Congress and Shiv Sena
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Bharatiya Jan Sangh and Swatantra Party

    6. What characterized Nehru’s leeway in formulating foreign policy?
  • (a) Limited influence
  • (b) Extensive military alliances
  • (c) Economic dominance
  • (d) Considerable flexibility and autonomy
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Considerable flexibility and autonomy

    1. What was the primary foreign policy approach advocated by independent India?
  • (a) Military alliances
  • (b) Nonalignment
  • (c) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
  • (d) Warsaw Pact
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Nonalignment

    2. Why did India not join either of the two military alliances during the Cold War?
  • (a) Lack of interest in global affairs
  • (b) Advocacy of non-alignment
  • (c) Strong opposition from the US and USSR
  • (d) Economic limitations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Advocacy of non-alignment

    3. What military alliances came into existence during the Cold War, led by the US and the USSR respectively?
  • (a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) and Warsaw Pact
  • (b) Axis Powers and Allied Powers
  • (c) Central Powers and Triple Entente
  • (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) and BRICS
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) and Warsaw Pact

    4. In 1956, what action did India take in response to Britain’s attack on Egypt over the Suez Canal issue?
  • (a) Joined the military alliances
  • (b) Led world protest against the invasion
  • (c) Publicly condemned the action
  • (d) Supported Britain’s invasion
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Led world protest against the invasion

    5. What characterized India’s economic interaction with the outside world based on the development strategy?
  • (a) Export-oriented growth
  • (b) Military dominance
  • (c) Cultural exchange programs
  • (d) Import-substitution
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Import-substitution

    6. What was the US’s response to India’s independent initiatives and the policy of non-alignment during the 1950s?
  • (a) Strong support and partnership
  • (b) Unease in relations
  • (c) Full endorsement
  • (d) Military assistance
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Unease in relations

    7. Which country joined the US-led military alliances while India advocated non-alignment?
  • (a) China
  • (b) Pakistan
  • (c) Bangladesh
  • (d) Sri Lanka
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Pakistan

    8. What characterized India’s stand on international issues during the Cold War despite occasional challenges to the balance?
  • (a) Complete alignment with the US
  • (b) Limited interaction with the world
  • (c) Independent stand
  • (d) Support for communism
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Independent stand

    9. What did India contribute to UN peacekeeping operations as part of its foreign policy?
  • (a) Economic aid
  • (b) Military alliances
  • (c) Human resources
  • (d) Cultural exchange programs
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Human resources

    10. What characterized India’s economic development strategy, as discussed in the last chapter?
  • (a) Export-oriented growth
  • (b) Import-substitution
  • (c) Military dominance
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Import-substitution

    1. What did Nehru envision for India’s role in world affairs and especially in Asian affairs?
  • (a) Limited involvement
  • (b) No role
  • (c) Major role
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Major role

    2. When did India convene the Asian Relations Conference under Nehru’s leadership?
  • (a) March 1957
  • (b) March 1947
  • (c) March 1961
  • (d) March 1955
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) March 1947

    3. What was the focus of Nehru’s efforts in supporting the freedom struggle of Indonesia in 1949?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Decolonisation
  • (c) Military dominance
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Decolonisation

    4. What issue did India firmly oppose, especially in South Africa?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Racism, especially apartheid
  • (c) Military alliances
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Racism, especially apartheid

    5. What marked the zenith of India’s engagement with newly independent Asian and African nations in the 1950s?
  • (a) Asian Relations Conference
  • (b) Bandung Conference
  • (c) NAM Summit
  • (d) Belgrade Conference
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Bandung Conference

    6. What organization was established as a result of the Bandung Conference?
  • (a) Asian Relations Conference
  • (b) NATO
  • (c) Warsaw Pact
  • (d) NAM (Non-Aligned Movement)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) NAM (Non-Aligned Movement)

    7. When was the First Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held?
  • (a) March 1947
  • (b) September 1961
  • (c) March 1955
  • (d) March 1961
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) September 1961

    8. Who was a co-founder of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)?
  • (a) Sardar Patel
  • (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (c) Dr Ambedkar
  • (d) Swatantra Party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

    9. What was Nehru’s stance on Asian unity throughout the 1940s and 1950s?
  • (a) Opposed
  • (b) Indifferent
  • (c) Averse
  • (d) Ardent advocate
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Ardent advocate

    10. What did Nehru consider as India’s contribution to world affairs, given its size, location, and power potential?
  • (a) Limited involvement
  • (b) No role
  • (c) Major role
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Major role

    1. What was India’s initial relationship with China after its independence?
  • (a) Hostile
  • (b) Friendly
  • (c) Indifferent
  • (d) Aggressive
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Friendly

    2. When did India recognize the communist government of China?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1949
  • (c) 1954
  • (d) 1959
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1949

    3. Who was concerned about a possible Chinese aggression in the future?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (c) Zhou Enlai
  • (d) None of the above
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Vallabhbhai Patel

    4. How did Nehru assess the likelihood of India facing an attack from China?
  • (a) Highly likely
  • (b) Exceedingly unlikely
  • (c) Certain
  • (d) Probable
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Exceedingly unlikely

    5. What were the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence jointly enunciated by Nehru and Zhou Enlai in 1954?
  • (a) NATO
  • (b) Warsaw Pact
  • (c) Panchsheel
  • (d) Bandung Principles
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Panchsheel

    6. What characterized the guarding of the Chinese border by India for a very long time?
  • (a) Army deployment
  • (b) Para-military forces
  • (c) Navy deployment
  • (d) Air Force deployment
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Para-military forces

    1. What strained the relationship between India and China in 1950?
  • (a) Annexation of Bhutan
  • (b) Annexation of Tibet
  • (c) Annexation of Nepal
  • (d) Annexation of Sri Lanka
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Annexation of Tibet

    2. What historical buffer did China remove by annexing Tibet?
  • (a) Himalayas
  • (b) Gobi Desert
  • (c) Thar Desert
  • (d) Great Wall of China
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Himalayas

    3. What caused the Indian government to grow uneasy about China’s annexation of Tibet?
  • (a) Economic reasons
  • (b) Suppression of Tibetan culture
  • (c) Political alliances
  • (d) Cultural exchange
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Suppression of Tibetan culture

    4. Who sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Sardar Patel
  • (c) The Dalai Lama
  • (d) Zhou Enlai
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) The Dalai Lama

    5. What was the main dispute about in the India-China boundary dispute?
  • (a) Eastern and western end of the border
  • (b) Northern and southern end of the border
  • (c) Coastal and inland border
  • (d) Desert and forest border
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Eastern and western end of the border

    6. What areas did China claim within Indian territory during the boundary dispute?
  • (a) Rajasthan and Gujarat
  • (b) Punjab and Haryana
  • (c) Aksai-chin and Arunachal Pradesh
  • (d) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Aksai-chin and Arunachal Pradesh

    7. What did China allege about India during this period?
  • (a) Allowing anti-China activities
  • (b) Supporting Chinese culture
  • (c) Seeking military alliance
  • (d) Invading Chinese territory
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Allowing anti-China activities

    8. What major event took the world’s attention during the India-China border skirmishes in 1962?
  • (a) Bandung Conference
  • (b) Cuban Missile Crisis
  • (c) Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
  • (d) Suez Canal Crisis
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Cuban Missile Crisis

    9. What did China do during the Cuban Missile Crisis?
  • (a) Launched a space mission
  • (b) Launched a massive invasion on India
  • (c) Initiated peaceful negotiations
  • (d) None of the above
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Launched a massive invasion on India

    10. How long did the first attack by China in the India-China border dispute last in 1962?
  • (a) One day
  • (b) One week
  • (c) One month
  • (d) One year
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) One week

    11. Which region did Chinese forces manage to advance nearly to during the second wave of attack in 1962?
  • (a) Ladakh
  • (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (c) Assam plains
  • (d) Jammu and Kashmir
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Assam plains

    12. What was the outcome of the India-China border dispute in 1962?
  • (a) India captured Chinese territory
  • (b) China declared a unilateral ceasefire
  • (c) India declared a unilateral ceasefire
  • (d) Both countries signed a peace treaty
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) China declared a unilateral ceasefire

    1. What impact did the China war have on India’s image?
  • (a) Strengthened national unity
  • (b) Enhanced global reputation
  • (c) Dented image at home and abroad
  • (d) Improved diplomatic relations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Dented image at home and abroad

    2. Who did India approach for military assistance during the China war?
  • (a) Soviet Union
  • (b) China
  • (c) United States and Britain
  • (d) France and Germany
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) United States and Britain

    3. Which country remained neutral during the Sino-Indian conflict?
  • (a) United States
  • (b) Britain
  • (c) Soviet Union
  • (d) China
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Soviet Union

    4. What sense did the Sino-Indian conflict induce in India?
  • (a) Economic optimism
  • (b) National humiliation
  • (c) Political stability
  • (d) Global cooperation
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) National humiliation

    5. Who had to leave the cabinet as a result of the Sino-Indian conflict?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) V. Krishna Menon
  • (c) The Dalai Lama
  • (d) Sardar Patel
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) V. Krishna Menon

    6. What happened for the first time in the Lok Sabha after the Sino-Indian conflict?
  • (a) Adoption of a new constitution
  • (b) Introduction of a new economic policy
  • (c) No-confidence motion against the government
  • (d) Approval of a peace treaty
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) No-confidence motion against the government

    7. What changed in the political mood of the country after the Sino-Indian conflict?
  • (a) Increased trust in the government
  • (b) Growing support for the Congress
  • (c) A shift in the opposition’s favor
  • (d) No change
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) A shift in the opposition’s favor

    8. What happened within the Communist Party of India (CPI) due to the Sino-Indian conflict?
  • (a) Strengthened unity
  • (b) Irreconcilable differences
  • (c) Formation of a new party
  • (d) Merger with the Congress
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Irreconcilable differences

    9. What did the leaders of the pro-China faction within the Communist Party of India form after the split in 1964?
  • (a) Communist Party of India (CPI)
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  • (c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M)
  • (d) Indian National Congress (INC)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M)

    10. What was the impact of the Sino-Indian conflict on the leaders of CPI (M)?
  • (a) Arrested for being pro-India
  • (b) Arrested for being pro-China
  • (c) Expelled from politics
  • (d) No impact
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Arrested for being pro-China

    1. What was the initial cause of conflict between India and Pakistan after Partition?
  • (a) Territorial disputes in Punjab
  • (b) Rann of Kutch skirmish
  • (c) Proxy war over Kashmir
  • (d) Water-sharing disagreement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Proxy war over Kashmir

    2. What role did the UN play in the resolution of the Kashmir conflict?
  • (a) Mediation between India and Pakistan
  • (b) Direct intervention in the war
  • (c) Support for Pakistan’s position
  • (d) Indifference to the issue
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Mediation between India and Pakistan

    3. When was the India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty signed?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1955
  • (c) 1960
  • (d) 1965
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) 1960

    4. Who were the signatories of the India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru and Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (b) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
  • (c) Nehru and General Ayub Khan
  • (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri and General Ayub Khan
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Nehru and General Ayub Khan

    5. Which conflict between India and Pakistan occurred in the Rann of Kutch area?
  • (a) 1962
  • (b) 1965
  • (c) 1971
  • (d) 1947
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) 1965

    6. What offensive move did Lal Bahadur Shastri order during the 1965 conflict?
  • (a) Attack on Lahore
  • (b) Invasion of Kashmir
  • (c) Seizure of Rann of Kutch
  • (d) Blockade of Karachi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (a) Attack on Lahore

    7. What brought an end to the hostilities in the 1965 Indo-Pak war?
  • (a) Bilateral agreement
  • (b) UN intervention
  • (c) Tashkent Agreement
  • (d) Surrender of one party
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) UN intervention

    8. Who brokered the Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan in 1966?
  • (a) United States
  • (b) Soviet Union
  • (c) China
  • (d) United Kingdom
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Soviet Union

    9. What economic impact did the 1965 war have on India?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Improved economic situation
  • (c) Economic decline
  • (d) Economic prosperity
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic decline

    10. What was the political consequence of the 1965 war in India?
  • (a) Strengthened the ruling party
  • (b) Political stability
  • (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri’s resignation
  • (d) Formation of a new government
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri’s resignation

    1. What was the outcome of Pakistan’s first general election in 1970?
  • (a) A clear victory for West Pakistan
  • (b) A split verdict with Zulfikar Ali Bhutto winning in both regions
  • (c) Awami League’s victory in both West and East Pakistan
  • (d) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s party winning in West Pakistan and Awami League in East Pakistan
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s party winning in West Pakistan and Awami League in East Pakistan

    2. What led to the split between West Pakistan and East Pakistan in 1971?
  • (a) Ethnic differences
  • (b) Religious conflicts
  • (c) Economic disparities
  • (d) Political disagreements
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic disparities

    3. What was the demand of the Awami League in East Pakistan?
  • (a) Independence of East Pakistan
  • (b) Autonomy within a federation
  • (c) Unification with West Pakistan
  • (d) Religious freedom
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Autonomy within a federation

    4. What action did the Pakistani army take in response to the Awami League’s demands?
  • (a) Accepted the democratic verdict
  • (b) Negotiated for a federation
  • (c) Arrested Sheikh Mujib and imposed terror
  • (d) Initiated peace talks with India
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Arrested Sheikh Mujib and imposed terror

    5. What did India do in response to the crisis in East Pakistan?
  • (a) Provided military support to Pakistan
  • (b) Declared war on Bangladesh
  • (c) Extended moral and material support to the freedom struggle
  • (d) Stayed neutral
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Extended moral and material support to the freedom struggle

    6. How did Pakistan respond to India’s involvement in the East Pakistan crisis?
  • (a) Acknowledged India’s support
  • (b) Accused India of a conspiracy to break up Pakistan
  • (c) Requested India’s assistance
  • (d) Initiated peace talks with India
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Accused India of a conspiracy to break up Pakistan

    1. What major event led to a realignment of forces in Asia in the late 1960s?
  • (a) Cuban Missile Crisis
  • (b) Sino-Indian War
  • (c) US-China rapprochement
  • (d) Indo-Pak War
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) US-China rapprochement

    2. Who made a secret visit to China in July 1971, paving the way for a new alliance?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Indira Gandhi
  • (c) Henry Kissinger
  • (d) Richard Nixon
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Henry Kissinger

    3. In response to the US-Pakistan-China axis, what treaty did India sign with the Soviet Union in August 1971?
  • (a) Indo-US Friendship Treaty
  • (b) Treaty of Peace and Friendship
  • (c) Shimla Agreement
  • (d) Tashkent Agreement
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Treaty of Peace and Friendship

    4. When did a full-scale war between India and Pakistan break out in 1971?
  • (a) April
  • (b) May
  • (c) June
  • (d) December
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) December

    5. What event led to the surrender of the Pakistani army and the creation of Bangladesh?
  • (a) Shimla Agreement
  • (b) Tashkent Agreement
  • (c) Unilateral ceasefire by India
  • (d) Surrounding of Dhaka by Indian army
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Surrounding of Dhaka by Indian army

    6. Which agreement formalized the return of peace between India and Pakistan after the 1971 war?
  • (a) Tashkent Agreement
  • (b) Shimla Agreement
  • (c) Treaty of Peace and Friendship
  • (d) Indo-Pak Indus Waters Treaty
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Shimla Agreement

    7. Who was the Prime Minister of India during the 1971 war?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) V. Krishna Menon
  • (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi

    8. What did the Department of Defence Production and the Department of Defence Supplies focus on after 1962?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Military modernization
  • (c) Cultural exchange
  • (d) Environmental protection
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Military modernization

    9. What was the impact of the wars on India’s development plans?
  • (a) Accelerated economic growth
  • (b) Diverted resources to defence
  • (c) Strengthened cultural ties
  • (d) Enhanced diplomatic relations
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Diverted resources to defence

    10. Who brokered the Shimla Agreement between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto?
  • (a) Henry Kissinger
  • (b) Richard Nixon
  • (c) Soviet Union
  • (d) Leonid Brezhnev
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Soviet Union

    11. Who won the Lok Sabha elections in 1971, becoming the Prime Minister of India?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (c) V. Krishna Menon
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi

    12. Which agreement formalized the return of peace between India and Pakistan after the 1971 war?
  • (a) Tashkent Agreement
  • (b) Shimla Agreement
  • (c) Treaty of Peace and Friendship
  • (d) Indo-Pak Indus Waters Treaty
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Shimla Agreement

    13. How did the 1971 war impact India’s political landscape?
  • (a) Increased opposition to the ruling party
  • (b) Decline in national morale
  • (c) Enhanced the popularity of the ruling party
  • (d) Rise of regional parties
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Enhanced the popularity of the ruling party

    14. Which department was established in November 1962 to focus on India’s military modernization?
  • (a) Department of Economic Affairs
  • (b) Department of Defence Production
  • (c) Department of Education
  • (d) Department of Science and Technology
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (b) Department of Defence Production

    15. What did the Department of Defence Supplies focus on after its establishment in November 1965?
  • (a) Military strategy
  • (b) Diplomatic negotiations
  • (c) Cultural exchange
  • (d) Procurement of military resources
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Procurement of military resources

    16. Which plan was affected by the wars, leading to the initiation of three Annual Plans before the Fourth Plan in 1969?
  • (a) First Plan (1951-56)
  • (b) Second Plan (1956-61)
  • (c) Third Plan (1961-66)
  • (d) Fifth Plan (1974-79)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Third Plan (1961-66)

    17. What was the impact of the wars on India’s economic situation?
  • (a) Economic boom
  • (b) Increased foreign aid
  • (c) Difficult economic situation
  • (d) Accelerated development plans
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (c) Difficult economic situation

    18. Which country extended support to Pakistan during the 1971 war?
  • (a) United States
  • (b) China
  • (c) Soviet Union
  • (d) Both (a) and (b)
    •
    Answer

    Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

    1. Who initiated India’s nuclear programme in the late 1940s?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Indira Gandhi
  • (c) Homi J. Bhabha
  • (d) Rajiv Gandhi
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Homi J. Bhabha

     2. What was Nehru’s stance on nuclear weapons?
  • (a) Supportive
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Opposed
  • (d) Indifferent
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Opposed

     3. What did India term its first nuclear test?
  • (a) Atomic Bomb
  • (b) Peaceful Explosion
  • (c) Nuclear Detonation
  • (d) Strategic Blast
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Peaceful Explosion

     4. Why did India consider the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) discriminatory?
  • (a) It favored India
  • (b) India was not invited to sign it
  • (c) India had already signed a similar treaty
  • (d) India was not a permanent member of the UN Security Council
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) It favored India

     5. What global event impacted India’s economy during the period of the first nuclear test?
  • (a) World War II
  • (b) Cuban Missile Crisis
  • (c) Arab-Israel War of 1973
  • (d) Cold War
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Arab-Israel War of 1973

     6. What was the impact of the Oil Shock on India?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) High inflation
  • (c) Stable currency
  • (d) Decreased unemployment
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) High inflation

     7. During which month and year did India conduct its first nuclear explosion?
  • (a) October 1964
  • (b) May 1974
  • (c) January 1950
  • (d) December 1968
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) May 1974

     8. What did Nehru plead with the superpowers regarding nuclear disarmament?
  • (a) To increase nuclear arsenals
  • (b) To maintain the status quo
  • (c) Comprehensive nuclear disarmament
  • (d) To support India’s nuclear program
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Comprehensive nuclear disarmament

     9. Which scientist played a crucial role in initiating India’s nuclear programme?
  • (a) Abdul Kalam
  • (b) Homi J. Bhabha
  • (c) C.V. Raman
  • (d) Srinivasa Ramanujan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Homi J. Bhabha

     10. Which countries were the five nuclear weapon powers that tried to impose the NPT on the rest of the world?
  • (a) US, USSR, France, Germany, China
  • (b) US, USSR, UK, France, China
  • (c) UK, France, China, India, Pakistan
  • (d) US, Russia, Japan, China, Australia
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) US, USSR, UK, France, China

     1. What marked the decade of 1962-1971 in terms of India’s foreign relations?
  • (a) Three wars
  • (b) Peace treaties
  • (c) Economic alliances
  • (d) Territorial disputes
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Three wars

     2. How is Indian politics generally characterized concerning foreign relations?
  • (a) Disagreement on national integration
  • (b) Consensus on national interest
  • (c) Division on international boundaries
  • (d) Opposition to national interest
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Consensus on national interest

     3. What limited role does foreign policy play in Indian party politics?
  • (a) Central role
  • (b) No role
  • (c) Dominant role
  • (d) Limited role
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Limited role

     4. During the specified period, what were Indian political parties generally in agreement about?
  • (a) Territorial expansion
  • (b) National integration
  • (c) Economic isolation
  • (d) Border conflicts
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) National integration

     5. How many wars did India face during the decade of 1962-1971?
  • (a) One
  • (b) Two
  • (c) Three
  • (d) Four
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Three

     1. What does India oppose regarding international treaties on non-proliferation?
  • (a) Selective application to non-nuclear powers
  • (b) Universal application
  • (c) Exemption for nuclear powers
  • (d) Regional application only
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Selective application to non-nuclear powers

     2. What was India’s stance on the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995?
  • (a) Supportive
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Opposed
  • (d) Abstained
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Opposed

     3. Which treaty did India refuse to sign?
  • (a) Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
  • (b) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)
  • (c) START Treaty
  • (d) Nuclear Disarmament Treaty
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)

     4. When did India conduct a series of nuclear tests?
  • (a) 1990
  • (b) 1995
  • (c) 1998
  • (d) 2000
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1998

     5. What is India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence?
  • (a) First-use policy
  • (b) No-use policy
  • (c) Limited use for deterrence
  • (d) Maximum use for defense
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Limited use for deterrence

     6. What did Pakistan do after India’s nuclear tests in 1998?
  • (a) Signed the CTBT
  • (b) Advocated nuclear disarmament
  • (c) Condemned the tests
  • (d) Conducted its own tests
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Conducted its own tests

     7. What is India’s commitment regarding nuclear disarmament in its nuclear doctrine?
  • (a) Support for nuclear proliferation
  • (b) No commitment
  • (c) Global, verifiable, and non-discriminatory disarmament
  • (d) Unilateral disarmament
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Global, verifiable, and non-discriminatory disarmament

     1. What was the stance of the Janata Party government in 1977 regarding non-alignment?
  • (a) Pro-Soviet alignment
  • (b) Genuine non-alignment
  • (c) Pro-US alignment
  • (d) Military alignment
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Genuine non-alignment

     2. What are the two key questions closely linked to India’s foreign policy in the popular mind?
  • (a) Indo-Soviet relations
  • (b) Indo-US relations and relations with China
  • (c) Indo-Pakistan relations and relations with Russia
  • (d) Indo-Chinese relations and relations with the UK
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Indo-US relations and relations with China

     3. What criticism have ruling parties faced in the post-1990 period regarding foreign policy?
  • (a) Pro-Russia foreign policy
  • (b) Pro-China foreign policy
  • (c) Pro-US foreign policy
  • (d) Pro-Pakistan foreign policy
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Pro-US foreign policy

     4. What has been a major achievement in Indo-Pakistan relations in recent times?
  • (a) Joint military exercises
  • (b) Nuclear disarmament
  • (c) Cultural exchanges, citizen movement, and economic cooperation
  • (d) Formation of a military alliance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Cultural exchanges, citizen movement, and economic cooperation

     5. What issue continues to be the main point of contention between India and Pakistan?
  • (a) Economic cooperation
  • (b) Kashmir
  • (c) Cultural exchanges
  • (d) Military alliances
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Kashmir

     6. What significant event occurred in 1999 concerning India and Pakistan?
  • (a) Peace treaty
  • (b) Economic cooperation agreement
  • (c) Near-war situation
  • (d) Nuclear disarmament summit
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Near-war situation

     7. In the post-1990 period, what has influenced India’s foreign policy choices more?
  • (a) Military interests
  • (b) Economic interests
  • (c) Cultural interests
  • (d) Political interests
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic interests

     8. What replaced the Planning Commission in 2015?
  • (a) National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)
  • (b) Economic Development Council
  • (c) Foreign Relations Bureau
  • (d) Social Welfare Commission
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)

     1. What conflict occurred in May and June of 1999 between India and Pakistan?
  • (a) Indo-Pak War
  • (b) Kargil conflict
  • (c) Nuclear dispute
  • (d) LoC confrontation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Kargil conflict

     2. Which areas on the Indian side of the LoC were occupied in the early part of 1999, leading to the Kargil conflict?
  • (a) Jaipur and Udaipur
  • (b) Mashkoh, Dras, Kaksar, and Batalik
  • (c) Varanasi and Allahabad
  • (d) Shimla and Manali
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Mashkoh, Dras, Kaksar, and Batalik

     3. What drew worldwide attention during the Kargil conflict in 1999?
  • (a) Nuclear disarmament talks
  • (b) Peace negotiations
  • (c) India-Pakistan alliance
  • (d) Both India and Pakistan having attained nuclear capability
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Both India and Pakistan having attained nuclear capability

     4. What was the major controversy in Pakistan after the Kargil conflict?
  • (a) Political unrest
  • (b) Alleged deception by the Prime Minister
  • (c) Economic turmoil
  • (d) Border disputes
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Alleged deception by the Prime Minister

     5. When did India regain control of many of the lost points during the Kargil conflict?
  • (a) May 1999
  • (b) June 1999
  • (c) July 1999
  • (d) August 1999
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) July 1999

     6. Who led the Pakistan Army and took over the government after the Kargil conflict?
  • (a) General Pervez Musharraf
  • (b) Prime Minister of Pakistan
  • (c) Army Chief of India
  • (d) President of Pakistan
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) General Pervez Musharraf

     1. In which region does the film depict a small platoon of the Indian army being surrounded by the enemy during the China war of 1962?
  • (a) Kashmir
  • (b) Ladakh
  • (c) Punjab
  • (d) Rajasthan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Ladakh

     2. What is the central theme of the film set in the backdrop of the China war of 1962?
  • (a) Romance
  • (b) Political intrigue
  • (c) Soldier and his travails
  • (d) Betrayal by the Chinese
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Soldier and his travails

     3. Who are the characters that help the jawans vacate their posts in the film?
  • (a) Capt. Bahadur Singh and Kammo
  • (b) Dharmendra and Priya Rajvansh
  • (c) Balraj Sahni and Jayant
  • (d) Sanjay Khan and Vijay Anand
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Capt. Bahadur Singh and Kammo

     4. Which year was the film released?
  • (a) 1960
  • (b) 1962
  • (c) 1964
  • (d) 1966
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1964

     5. Who is the director of the film?
  • (a) Dharmendra
  • (b) Priya Rajvansh
  • (c) Balraj Sahni
  • (d) Chetan Anand
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Chetan Anand

     1. In which year were full diplomatic relations restored between India and China?
  • (a) 1962
  • (b) 1969
  • (c) 1976
  • (d) 1980
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1976

     2. Who was the first top-level leader to visit China in 1979?
  • (a) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (b) Atal Behari Vajpayee
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Atal Behari Vajpayee

     3. Who became the first Prime Minister after Nehru to visit China?
  • (a) Atal Behari Vajpayee
  • (b) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Indira Gandhi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Rajiv Gandhi

     4. What is the current emphasis in relations between India and China since the visits mentioned?
  • (a) Cultural exchange
  • (b) Military cooperation
  • (c) Trade relations
  • (d) Scientific collaboration
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Trade relations

     1. Who expressed a favorable impression of Zhou Enlai in December 1956?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Sardar Patel
  • (c) C. Rajagopalachari
  • (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) C. Rajagopalachari

     2. In what year did C. Rajagopalachari express his favorable impression of Zhou Enlai?
  • (a) 1945
  • (b) 1956
  • (c) 1968
  • (d) 1975
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1956

     1. What role did V.K. Krishna Menon play in the Labour Party in the UK between 1934-1947?
  • (a) Party Secretary
  • (b) Active Member
  • (c) Chief Diplomat
  • (d) Labour Union Leader
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Active Member

     2. In which capacity did V.K. Krishna Menon serve in the Indian High Commissioner in the UK?
  • (a) Ambassador
  • (b) Chief Economist
  • (c) Defence Minister
  • (d) Trade Representative
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Ambassador

     3. From which year did V.K. Krishna Menon become a member of the Union Cabinet?
  • (a) 1945
  • (b) 1956
  • (c) 1962
  • (d) 1970
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1956

     4. What position did V.K. Krishna Menon hold in the Cabinet from 1957?
  • (a) Finance Minister
  • (b) External Affairs Minister
  • (c) Home Minister
  • (d) Defence Minister
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Defence Minister

     5. Why did V.K. Krishna Menon resign from his position in the Cabinet in 1962?
  • (a) Health Issues
  • (b) Personal Reasons
  • (c) India-China War
  • (d) Disagreement with Nehru
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) India-China War

     1. According to C. Rajagopalachari, what is considered the biggest moral power in the civilized world?
  • (a) Material
  • (b) Men
  • (c) Money
  • (d) Country
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Country

     2. What is Jawaharlal Nehru’s general policy regarding power politics and groups of powers?
  • (a) Join the Russian bloc
  • (b) Avoid entanglement in power politics
  • (c) Join the Anglo-American bloc
  • (d) Support any powerful group
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Avoid entanglement in power politics

     3. According to C. Rajagopalachari, what are the three means of power?
  • (a) Material, Men, Money
  • (b) Wisdom, Wealth, Weapons
  • (c) Morality, Mind, Motivation
  • (d) Influence, Innovation, Independence
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Material, Men, Money

     4. What did C. Rajagopalachari say about India in his letter to Edwina Mountbatten in 1950?
  • (a) Military Power
  • (b) Economic Power
  • (c) Moral Power
  • (d) Political Power
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Moral Power

     5. According to Jawaharlal Nehru, why is India’s path difficult in terms of international relations?
  • (a) Lack of resources
  • (b) Suspicion between superpowers
  • (c) Lack of diplomatic skills
  • (d) Internal conflicts
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Suspicion between superpowers

     1. What does Article 51 of the Indian Constitution emphasize regarding international peace and security?
  • (a) Promoting local autonomy
  • (b) Encouraging internal disputes
  • (c) Fostering respect for international law
  • (d) Establishing military dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Fostering respect for international law

     2. According to Jawaharlal Nehru, what is the fundamental test of independence?
  • (a) Local autonomy
  • (b) Economic stability
  • (c) Foreign relations
  • (d) Internal disputes
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Foreign relations

     3. What directive does Article 51 of the Indian Constitution provide regarding international peace and security?
  • (a) Promotion of local peace
  • (b) Encouragement of military dominance
  • (c) Respect for international law
  • (d) Arbitration of internal disputes
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Respect for international law

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    ]]>         CHAPTER 3 POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT MCQs https://notesjobs.in/chapter-3-politics-of-planned-development-mcqs/ Sun, 14 Jan 2024 05:18:37 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14673 CHAPTER 3 POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT MCQs 1. What is the primary reason for Orissa being considered an important investment destination? (a) Large tribal population (b) Abundance of untapped iron ore reserves (c) Government initiatives for tourism (d) Presence of established industries Answer Answer: (b) Abundance of untapped iron ore reserves 2. What is the ... Read more

    The post CHAPTER 3 POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT MCQs appeared first on .

    ]]>     CHAPTER 3 POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT MCQs

    1. What is the primary reason for Orissa being considered an important investment destination?
  • (a) Large tribal population
  • (b) Abundance of untapped iron ore reserves
  • (c) Government initiatives for tourism
  • (d) Presence of established industries
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Abundance of untapped iron ore reserves

     2. What is the government’s expectation from signing Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with steel makers?
  • (a) Increase in tribal population
  • (b) Capital investment and employment opportunities
  • (c) Decline in iron ore demand
  • (d) Environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Capital investment and employment opportunities

     3. What is the main concern of the tribal population regarding the setting up of industries?
  • (a) Economic downturn
  • (b) Pollution of the environment
  • (c) Fear of displacement
  • (d) Lack of government support
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Fear of displacement

     4. What is the environmentalists’ primary concern regarding mining and industry?
  • (a) Lack of technological advancements
  • (b) Economic instability
  • (c) Pollution of the environment
  • (d) Loss of cultural heritage
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Pollution of the environment

     5. Why does the central government think allowing the industry is essential?
  • (a) To set a bad example
  • (b) To encourage investments in the country
  • (c) To discourage economic growth
  • (d) To promote environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) To encourage investments in the country

     6. What do environmentalists fear about the consequences of mining and industry?
  • (a) Loss of cultural heritage
  • (b) Positive impact on the environment
  • (c) Economic stability
  • (d) Pollution of the environment
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Pollution of the environment

     7. What is the central government’s concern if the industry is not allowed?
  • (a) Positive impact on the environment
  • (b) Economic stability
  • (c) Set a bad example and discourage investments
  • (d) Encouragement of environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Set a bad example and discourage investments

     8. What larger questions are raised concerning the development of Orissa?
  • (a) Cultural heritage preservation
  • (b) Whose need can be called Orissa’s need?
  • (c) Positive environmental impact
  • (d) Government support for tribal populations
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Whose need can be called Orissa’s need?

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    1. According to the passage, why are decisions of this kind difficult to answer by experts alone?
  • (a) Experts lack knowledge
  • (b) Involves weighing social interests
  • (c) Lack of expertise in history
  • (d) Experts disagree on major decisions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Involves weighing social interests

     2. In a democracy, what is emphasized regarding major decisions like those mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Decision-making by businessmen
  • (b) Decision-making by experts alone
  • (c) Decision-making by the people themselves
  • (d) Decision-making by foreign nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Decision-making by the people themselves

     3. According to the passage, whose approval is necessary for major decisions in a democracy?
  • (a) Approval of foreign experts
  • (b) Approval of environmentalists
  • (c) Approval of people’s representatives
  • (d) Approval of businessmen
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Approval of people’s representatives

     4. What role is expected of the government in the shared vision of economic development after Independence?
  • (a) Minimal role in economic growth
  • (b) No role in ensuring justice
  • (c) Key role in economic growth and justice
  • (d) Key role only in industrial development
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Key role in economic growth and justice

     5. What was the major point of disagreement after Independence regarding the government’s role in economic development?
  • (a) Government should have no role
  • (b) Centralized institution for planning
  • (c) Foreign countries should plan for India
  • (d) Businessmen should handle economic development
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Centralized institution for planning

     6. What aspect of economic development raised questions about the government’s involvement?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Cultural preservation
  • (c) Needs of justice conflicting with economic growth
  • (d) Lack of expert advice
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Needs of justice conflicting with economic growth

     7. According to the passage, what are these major decisions bound together by?
  • (a) Shared vision of political parties
  • (b) Shared vision of economic development
  • (c) Shared vision of foreign nations
  • (d) Shared vision of industrialists
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Shared vision of economic development

     8. What does the passage suggest about the process of development in India?
  • (a) It is entirely handled by businessmen
  • (b) It involves political judgment and consultations
  • (c) It requires no public approval
  • (d) It is solely the responsibility of environmentalists
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It involves political judgment and consultations

     9. What is highlighted as a crucial element in the history of politics in India?
  • (a) Business decisions
  • (b) Environmental conservation
  • (c) Process of development
  • (d) Role of foreign nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Process of development

     10. What is the primary reason for studying the process of development as mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) To criticize the government
  • (b) To understand economic growth
  • (c) As a part of the history of politics in India
  • (d) To promote the interests of businessmen
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) As a part of the history of politics in India

     1. What does the passage suggest about the contestation surrounding the idea of development?
  • (a) It leads to unanimous agreement
  • (b) It generates contradictions, conflicts, and debates
  • (c) It promotes harmonious discussions
  • (d) It has no impact on the development process
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It generates contradictions, conflicts, and debates

     2. According to the passage, what does ‘development’ mean to different sections of the people in the context of Orissa?
  • (a) Uniform progress
  • (b) Industrialization
  • (c) Different meanings
  • (d) Traditional social structures
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Different meanings

     3. Who might view development as the planning to set up a steel plant?
  • (a) Urban consumer
  • (b) Adivasi
  • (c) Industrialist
  • (d) Environmentalist
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Industrialist

     4. What was common during the first decade after Independence in terms of measuring development?
  • (a) Using a global standard
  • (b) Referring to the ‘East’
  • (c) Ignoring the West
  • (d) No standard for measuring development
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Using a global standard

     5. What did the idea of ‘modern’ development during the first decade after Independence associate with?
  • (a) Breakdown of traditional social structures
  • (b) Preservation of traditional values
  • (c) Adivasi empowerment
  • (d) Agricultural growth
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Breakdown of traditional social structures

     6. What did the common idea of ‘development’ involve during the first decade after Independence?
  • (a) Becoming more like the industrialized countries of the West
  • (b) Rejecting the West’s progress
  • (c) Staying rooted in traditional practices
  • (d) Ignoring economic progress
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Becoming more like the industrialized countries of the West

     1. What were the two models of modern development that India faced on the eve of Independence?
  • (a) Capitalist and Communist
  • (b) Liberal-capitalist and socialist
  • (c) Democratic and autocratic
  • (d) Industrialist and agrarian
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Liberal-capitalist and socialist

     2. Who were some of the leaders in India impressed by the Soviet model of development?
  • (a) Only leaders of the Communist Party of India
  • (b) Leaders of the Socialist Party and Nehru within the Congress
  • (c) Only leaders of the Congress party
  • (d) Leaders of the Liberal Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Leaders of the Socialist Party and Nehru within the Congress

     3. What was the broad consensus among nationalist leaders during the national movement regarding economic concerns?
  • (a) Government’s role should be similar to the colonial government
  • (b) Poverty alleviation and economic redistribution were government responsibilities
  • (c) Economic concerns should be left to private actors
  • (d) Development should be solely driven by private investors
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Poverty alleviation and economic redistribution were government responsibilities

     4. Despite various differences, what was the consensus point among leaders regarding development?
  • (a) Private actors should drive development
  • (b) The government should have no role in development
  • (c) The government needed to plan for development
  • (d) Development should be solely market-driven
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The government needed to plan for development

     5. What contributed to the consensus for the idea of planning as a process of rebuilding the economy?
  • (a) Lack of economic growth in the Soviet Union
  • (b) Great Depression in Europe
  • (c) Strong economic growth in the US
  • (d) Inter-war reconstruction of China
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Great Depression in Europe

     6. What was the Bombay Plan, and who proposed it?
  • (a) A plan for industrialization proposed by the government
  • (b) A plan for a market-driven economy proposed by private investors
  • (c) A plan for agricultural development proposed by farmers
  • (d) A plan for socialist development proposed by the Congress party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) A plan for a market-driven economy proposed by private investors

     7. When did the Planning Commission come into existence in India?
  • (a) Before Independence
  • (b) During the British colonial rule
  • (c) Immediately after Independence
  • (d) In the 1960s
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Immediately after Independence

     8. Who was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission?
  • (a) The President
  • (b) The Prime Minister
  • (c) The Finance Minister
  • (d) The Chief Justice
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The Prime Minister

     9. What did the Planning Commission become in terms of its influence?
  • (a) A minor advisory body
  • (b) The most influential and central machinery for deciding India’s development path
  • (c) A market-driven organization
  • (d) A socialist development organization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The most influential and central machinery for deciding India’s development path

     10. What was the main purpose of the Bombay Plan?
  • (a) To establish a socialist economy
  • (b) To promote agricultural development
  • (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives
  • (d) To support private actors in the economy
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives

     11. What did the nationalist leaders agree on regarding the responsibility of the government after Independence?
  • (a) Economic concerns should be left to private actors
  • (b) Poverty alleviation and economic redistribution were not government responsibilities
  • (c) Government’s role should be similar to the colonial government
  • (d) Poverty alleviation and economic redistribution were government responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Poverty alleviation and economic redistribution were government responsibilities

     12. What was the common perception about private investors and their attitude towards planning in India?
  • (a) They were supportive of an open economy without state control
  • (b) They were against any form of planning
  • (c) They only supported socialist planning
  • (d) They preferred a completely state-controlled economy
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) They were supportive of an open economy without state control

     13. What contributed to the idea of planning gaining public support in the 1940s and 1950s?
  • (a) Failure of planning in the Soviet Union
  • (b) Success of planning in Europe
  • (c) Great Depression in the US
  • (d) Spectacular economic growth in the Soviet Union
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Spectacular economic growth in the Soviet Union

     14. When did the Planning Commission come into existence in India?
  • (a) 1930s
  • (b) 1940s
  • (c) 1950s
  • (d) 1960s
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1950s

     15. Who proposed the Bombay Plan?
  • (a) Indian farmers
  • (b) British colonial rulers
  • (c) Big industrialists in India
  • (d) Soviet leaders
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Big industrialists in India

     16. What was the main purpose of the Bombay Plan?
  • (a) To establish a socialist economy
  • (b) To promote agricultural development
  • (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives
  • (d) To support private actors in the economy
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives

     17. Who was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission?
  • (a) The President
  • (b) The Prime Minister
  • (c) The Finance Minister
  • (d) The Chief Justice
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The Prime Minister

     18. What did the Planning Commission become in terms of its influence?
  • (a) A minor advisory body
  • (b) The most influential and central machinery for deciding India’s development path
  • (c) A market-driven organization
  • (d) A socialist development organization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The most influential and central machinery for deciding India’s development path

     19. What was the main purpose of the Bombay Plan?
  • (a) To establish a socialist economy
  • (b) To promote agricultural development
  • (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives
  • (d) To support private actors in the economy
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To advocate for a planned economy with government initiatives

     20. Who was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission?
  • (a) The President
  • (b) The Prime Minister
  • (c) The Finance Minister
  • (d) The Chief Justice
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The Prime Minister

     1. What was the main concept behind the five-year plans in India?
  • (a) Yearly budget planning
  • (b) Long-term intervention in the economy
  • (c) Monthly financial planning
  • (d) Random economic decisions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Long-term intervention in the economy

     2. How is the budget of the central and state governments divided in the context of five-year plans?
  • (a) Yearly basis
  • (b) Monthly basis
  • (c) Two parts: ‘non-plan’ and ‘plan’ budgets
  • (d) Quarterly basis
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Two parts: ‘non-plan’ and ‘plan’ budgets

     3. What does the ‘non-plan’ budget cover?
  • (a) Routine items on a yearly basis
  • (b) Long-term economic goals
  • (c) Monthly expenses
  • (d) Unplanned expenditures
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Routine items on a yearly basis

     4. What advantage does a five-year plan offer to the government?
  • (a) Short-term focus
  • (b) Yearly intervention
  • (c) Long-term focus on the larger picture
  • (d) Random economic decisions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Long-term focus on the larger picture

     5. When was the draft of the First Five Year Plan released?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1951
  • (c) 1956
  • (d) 1966
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1951

     6. What did the actual Plan Document of the First Five Year Plan generate in the country?
  • (a) Economic crisis
  • (b) Plan holiday
  • (c) Excitement and extensive discussions
  • (d) Decline in economic development
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Excitement and extensive discussions

     7. When did the excitement with planning reach its peak?
  • (a) First Five Year Plan
  • (b) Second Five Year Plan
  • (c) Third Five Year Plan
  • (d) Fourth Five Year Plan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Second Five Year Plan

     8. Why did the government decide to take a ‘plan holiday’?
  • (a) Decline in economic development
  • (b) Acute economic crisis
  • (c) Critics’ feedback on the plans
  • (d) Lack of public support
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Acute economic crisis

     9. What was the main criticism about the Fourth Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Lack of excitement
  • (b) Lack of government involvement
  • (c) Novelty of planning had declined
  • (d) Overemphasis on economic crisis
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Novelty of planning had declined

     10. What did the foundation of India’s economic development rely on by the Third Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Economic crisis resolution
  • (b) Excitement with planning
  • (c) Acute economic crisis
  • (d) Long-term planning and intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Long-term planning and intervention

     11. What marked the decline of the novelty of planning in India?
  • (a) First Five Year Plan
  • (b) Second Five Year Plan
  • (c) Third Five Year Plan
  • (d) Fourth Five Year Plan
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) First Five Year Plan

     12. What did the foundation of India’s economic development rely on by the Third Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Economic crisis resolution
  • (b) Excitement with planning
  • (c) Acute economic crisis
  • (d) Long-term planning and intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Long-term planning and intervention

     13. What marked the decline of the novelty of planning in India?
  • (a) First Five Year Plan
  • (b) Second Five Year Plan
  • (c) Third Five Year Plan
  • (d) Fourth Five Year Plan
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Fourth Five Year Plan

     14. Why did the government decide to take a ‘plan holiday’?
  • (a) Decline in economic development
  • (b) Acute economic crisis
  • (c) Critics’ feedback on the plans
  • (d) Lack of public support
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Acute economic crisis

     15. What was the main criticism about the Fourth Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Lack of excitement
  • (b) Lack of government involvement
  • (c) Novelty of planning had declined
  • (d) Overemphasis on economic crisis
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Novelty of planning had declined

     1. What was the main objective of the First Five Year Plan (1951–1956)?
  • (a) Industrial growth
  • (b) Democracy promotion
  • (c) Breaking the cycle of poverty
  • (d) Population control
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Breaking the cycle of poverty

     2. What did K.N. Raj, an economist involved in drafting the plan, suggest for the initial two decades of development?
  • (a) Rapid development for economic growth
  • (b) Slow and cautious development to protect democracy
  • (c) No development for the first two decades
  • (d) Focusing only on industrial development
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Slow and cautious development to protect democracy

     3. What sector did the First Five Year Plan mainly address?
  • (a) Industrial sector
  • (b) Education sector
  • (c) Agricultural sector
  • (d) Health sector
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Agricultural sector

     4. What was identified as the principal obstacle in the way of agricultural growth?
  • (a) Lack of technology
  • (b) Inadequate rainfall
  • (c) Pattern of land distribution
  • (d) Lack of skilled labor
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Pattern of land distribution

     5. What was considered the key to the country’s development in the First Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Industrialization
  • (b) Technology advancements
  • (c) Land reforms
  • (d) Population control
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Land reforms

     6. What was one of the basic aims of the planners regarding national income?
  • (a) Increasing spending
  • (b) Reducing spending
  • (c) Keeping spending constant
  • (d) Raising the level of national income through increased savings
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Raising the level of national income through increased savings

     7. Why did the planners seek to push savings up in the First Five Year Plan?
  • (a) To increase government revenue
  • (b) To reduce government expenditure
  • (c) To raise the level of national income
  • (d) To promote consumer spending
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To raise the level of national income

     8. What was challenging in pushing savings up according to the passage?
  • (a) Low basic level of spending
  • (b) High basic level of spending
  • (c) Lack of government support
  • (d) Lack of public awareness
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Low basic level of spending

     9. Until when did people’s savings rise in the first phase of the planned process?
  • (a) Until the end of the Second Five Year Plan
  • (b) Until the end of the Third Five Year Plan
  • (c) Until the end of the Fourth Five Year Plan
  • (d) Until the end of the Fifth Five Year Plan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Until the end of the Third Five Year Plan

     10. What happened to the proportion of savings in the country from the early 1960s to the early 1970s?
  • (a) It remained constant
  • (b) It increased consistently
  • (c) It dropped consistently
  • (d) It reached a peak
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It dropped consistently

     1. What was the focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Education
  • (b) Heavy Industries
  • (c) Agriculture
  • (d) Healthcare
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Heavy Industries

     2. Who led the team of economists and planners that drafted the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) P. C. Mahalanobis
  • (c) K.N. Raj
  • (d) Avadi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) P. C. Mahalanobis

     3. What was the declared goal of the Congress party during the session held at Avadi?
  • (a) Capitalist society
  • (b) Socialist pattern of society
  • (c) Industrial revolution
  • (d) Agricultural transformation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Socialist pattern of society

     4. What key strategy did the government employ to protect domestic industries in the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Export subsidies
  • (b) Currency devaluation
  • (c) Subsidies to farmers
  • (d) Substantial tariffs on imports
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Substantial tariffs on imports

     5. What sector saw significant development in the public sector during this period?
  • (a) Education
  • (b) Healthcare
  • (c) Agriculture
  • (d) Electricity, railways, steel, machineries, and communication
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Electricity, railways, steel, machineries, and communication

     6. What marked a turning point in India’s development according to the passage?
  • (a) Agricultural reforms
  • (b) Technological advancement
  • (c) Push for industrialization
  • (d) Urbanization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Push for industrialization

     7. What problem did India face due to being technologically backward?
  • (a) Overpopulation
  • (b) Food shortage
  • (c) Lack of infrastructure
  • (d) Economic recession
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Food shortage

     8. What criticism did critics level against the Third Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Urban bias
  • (b) Agricultural bias
  • (c) Industrial bias
  • (d) Socialist bias
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Urban bias

     9. What did some critics think was wrongly prioritized in the plans?
  • (a) Agriculture
  • (b) Heavy Industries
  • (c) Education
  • (d) Healthcare
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Heavy Industries

     10. What challenge did Indian planners find difficult in the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Technological backwardness
  • (b) Balancing industry and agriculture
  • (c) Lack of foreign exchange
  • (d) Lack of skilled labor
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Balancing industry and agriculture

     11. What marked a turning point in India’s development according to the passage?
  • (a) Agricultural reforms
  • (b) Technological advancement
  • (c) Push for industrialization
  • (d) Urbanization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Push for industrialization

     13. Who was the leader of the team of economists and planners that drafted the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) P. C. Mahalanobis
  • (c) K.N. Raj
  • (d) Avadi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) P. C. Mahalanobis

     14. What was the declared goal of the Congress party during the session held at Avadi?
  • (a) Capitalist society
  • (b) Socialist pattern of society
  • (c) Industrial revolution
  • (d) Agricultural transformation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Socialist pattern of society

     15. What key strategy did the government employ to protect domestic industries in the Second Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Export subsidies
  • (b) Currency devaluation
  • (c) Subsidies to farmers
  • (d) Substantial tariffs on imports
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Substantial tariffs on imports

     16. What sector saw significant development in the public sector during this period?
  • (a) Education
  • (b) Healthcare
  • (c) Agriculture
  • (d) Electricity, railways, steel, machineries, and communication
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Electricity, railways, steel, machineries, and communication

     17. What marked a turning point in India’s development according to the passage?
  • (a) Agricultural reforms
  • (b) Technological advancement
  • (c) Push for industrialization
  • (d) Urbanization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Push for industrialization

     18. What problem did India face due to being technologically backward?
  • (a) Overpopulation
  • (b) Food shortage
  • (c) Lack of infrastructure
  • (d) Economic recession
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Food shortage

     19. What criticism did critics level against the Third Five Year Plan?
  • (a) Urban bias
  • (b) Agricultural bias
  • (c) Industrial bias
  • (d) Socialist bias
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Urban bias

     20. What did some critics think was wrongly prioritized in the plans?
  • (a) Agriculture
  • (b) Heavy Industries
  • (c) Education
  • (d) Healthcare
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Heavy Industries

     1. What is the common theme depicted on the stamps issued between 1955 and 1968?
  • (a) Historic landmarks
  • (b) Natural landscapes
  • (c) Planned development
  • (d) Cultural heritage
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Planned development

     2. Which of the following is NOT depicted on the stamps?
  • (a) Bhakra Dam
  • (b) Wheat Revolution
  • (c) Gauhati Refinery
  • (d) Jal Nagari
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Jal Nagari

     3. What do the stamps reflect about the time period they were issued?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Agricultural practices
  • (c) Vision of planned development
  • (d) Cultural diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Vision of planned development

     1. What are the villagers protesting against in Orissa?
  • (a) Construction of a dam
  • (b) Establishment of a steel plant
  • (c) Implementation of a water project
  • (d) Expansion of a power station
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Establishment of a steel plant

     2. Where did the villagers stage their demonstration?
  • (a) Outside the Rashtriya Yuva Sangathan office
  • (b) Outside the Nabanirman Samiti office
  • (c) Outside the Korean company’s office
  • (d) Outside the Orissa government office
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Outside the Korean company’s office

     3. What were the protesters demanding?
  • (a) Construction of more factories
  • (b) Expansion of the steel plant
  • (c) Cancellation of the memorandum of understanding
  • (d) Collaboration with the government
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Cancellation of the memorandum of understanding

     4. Which gram panchayats were represented by the protesters?
  • (a) Dhinkia, Nuagaon, and Gadakujanga
  • (b) Jal Yojana, Jal Nagari, Jal Gram
  • (c) POSCO-India, Rashtriya Yuva Sangathan, Nabanirman Samiti
  • (d) Bhubaneswar, Bhadrak, Bargarh
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Dhinkia, Nuagaon, and Gadakujanga

     5. Who organized the demonstration?
  • (a) The Orissa government
  • (b) Rashtriya Yuva Sangathan and Nabanirman Samiti
  • (c) POSCO-India
  • (d) The Hindu newspaper
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Rashtriya Yuva Sangathan and Nabanirman Samiti

     1. How are Left and Right ideologies characterized in politics?
  • (a) By their stance on environmental issues
  • (b) By their position on social change and economic redistribution
  • (c) By their support for military interventions
  • (d) By their stance on cultural heritage
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) By their position on social change and economic redistribution

     2. What does the term “Left” typically refer to in political ideology?
  • (a) Supporters of free competition
  • (b) Advocates for market economy
  • (c) Those in favor of the poor and downtrodden
  • (d) Believers in minimal government intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Those in favor of the poor and downtrodden

     3. What does the term “Right” typically refer to in political ideology?
  • (a) Supporters of free competition
  • (b) Advocates for market economy
  • (c) Those in favor of the poor and downtrodden
  • (d) Believers in minimal government intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Supporters of free competition

     4. According to the passage, where do Left parties typically stand regarding government policies?
  • (a) Against government policies
  • (b) In favor of government policies for the benefit of the poor
  • (c) Supportive of military interventions
  • (d) Opposed to economic progress
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) In favor of government policies for the benefit of the poor

     5. According to the passage, what do Right parties typically believe in regarding economic progress?
  • (a) Government intervention is necessary
  • (b) Free competition and market economy ensure progress
  • (c) Both Left and Right ideologies are equally valid
  • (d) Cultural heritage is more important than economic progress
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Free competition and market economy ensure progress

     1. When was the Planning Commission set up?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1950
  • (c) 1960
  • (d) 1975
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1950

     2. What is the nature of the Planning Commission’s role?
  • (a) Legislative
  • (b) Executive
  • (c) Advisory
  • (d) Judicial
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Advisory

     3. When did the NITI Aayog replace the Planning Commission?
  • (a) 2000
  • (b) 2010
  • (c) 2015
  • (d) 2020
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 2015

     4. What was the scope of work defined for the Planning Commission in the resolution?
  • (a) To enforce Fundamental Rights
  • (b) To control the economy
  • (c) To promote the welfare of the people
  • (d) To interpret the Constitution
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To promote the welfare of the people

     5. When did the NITI Aayog come into existence?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1955
  • (c) 2010
  • (d) 2015
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) 2015

     6. According to the passage, what did the NITI Aayog replace?
  • (a) Supreme Court
  • (b) Election Commission
  • (c) Planning Commission
  • (d) Reserve Bank of India
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Planning Commission

     7. What did the resolution setting up the Planning Commission mention about the economic system?
  • (a) It should be completely controlled by the government
  • (b) It should result in the concentration of wealth
  • (c) It should be based on free competition and market economy
  • (d) It should not result in the concentration of wealth
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) It should not result in the concentration of wealth

     8. When did the Planning Commission resolutions become effective?
  • (a) Automatically after drafting
  • (b) After approval by the Union Cabinet
  • (c) Immediately upon release
  • (d) After being ratified by the President
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) After approval by the Union Cabinet

    9. What did the resolution emphasize regarding the ownership and control of material resources?
  • (a) It should be completely government-controlled
  • (b) It should be in the hands of a few individuals
  • (c) It should be distributed for the common good
  • (d) It should be solely controlled by private businesses
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It should be distributed for the common good

     10. What was the primary reason for replacing the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog?
  • (a) To enhance government control over the economy
  • (b) To promote the welfare of the people more effectively
  • (c) To align with the objectives of the Directive Principles
  • (d) To eliminate advisory roles in the government
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To align with the objectives of the Directive Principles

     1. Who is P.C. Mahalanobis?
  • (a) Politician
  • (b) Scientist and statistician
  • (c) Industrialist
  • (d) Economist
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Scientist and statistician

     2. What is the significance of P.C. Mahalanobis in the context of Indian planning?
  • (a) Founder of the Indian Statistical Institute
  • (b) Architect of the First Five Year Plan
  • (c) Advocate for agrarian reforms
  • (d) Pioneer in environmental sciences
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Founder of the Indian Statistical Institute

     3. What role did P.C. Mahalanobis play in economic planning?
  • (a) Supporter of slow-paced development
  • (b) Advocate for privatization
  • (c) Architect of the Second Plan
  • (d) Critic of public sector involvement
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Architect of the Second Plan

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    ]]>         CHAPTER 2 ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE MCQ https://notesjobs.in/chapter-2-era-of-one-party-dominance-mcq/ Sat, 13 Jan 2024 05:30:43 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14647 CHAPTER 2 ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE MCQ 1. According to the passage, why did some leaders in other countries decide against having democracy after gaining independence? (a) Lack of Political Awareness (b) Fear of Differences and Conflicts (c) Strong Commitment to Democracy (d) Influence of Colonial Rule Answer Answer: (b) Fear of Differences and Conflicts ... Read more

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    ]]>     CHAPTER 2 ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE MCQ

    1. According to the passage, why did some leaders in other countries decide against having democracy after gaining independence?
  • (a) Lack of Political Awareness
  • (b) Fear of Differences and Conflicts
  • (c) Strong Commitment to Democracy
  • (d) Influence of Colonial Rule
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Fear of Differences and Conflicts

     2. What did non-democratic regimes in other countries often promise but found difficult to implement once established?
  • (a) Economic Development
  • (b) Restoration of Democracy
  • (c) Cultural Integration
  • (d) Military Dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Restoration of Democracy

     3. What was the critical role of politics according to the leaders of newly independent India?
  • (a) Source of Conflicts
  • (b) Means of Problem Solving
  • (c) Obstacle to Development
  • (d) Root of Corruption
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Means of Problem Solving

     4. What did the leaders of independent India see as the purpose of political activity?
  • (a) Accumulation of Power
  • (b) Resolving Public Interest
  • (c) Establishing Dictatorship
  • (d) Promoting Personal Interests
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Resolving Public Interest

     5. What did the leaders decide to take despite the difficult circumstances?
  • (a) Non-Democratic Path
  • (b) Military Rule
  • (c) Democratic Path
  • (d) Colonial Rule
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Democratic Path

     6. When was the Constitution adopted?
  • (a) 15 August 1947
  • (b) 26 November 1949
  • (c) 24 January 1950
  • (d) 26 January 1950
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 26 November 1949

     7. Who became the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
  • (a) Sukumar Sen
  • (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (c) Sardar Patel
  • (d) Rajendra Prasad
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Sukumar Sen

     8. What was expected to take place sometime in 1950?
  • (a) Adoption of Constitution
  • (b) Formation of Interim Government
  • (c) General Elections
  • (d) Signing of the Constitution
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) General Elections

     9. What path did leaders in many other countries take after gaining freedom from colonialism?
  • (a) Democratic Rule
  • (b) Nominal Democracy
  • (c) Dictator ship
  • (d) Military Rule
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Dictatorship

     10. What was the critical issue that the partition posed beyond administrative concerns and financial strains?
  • (a) Economic Development
  • (b) Two-Nation Theory
  • (c) Treatment of Religious Minorities
  • (d) Formation of the Interim Government
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Treatment of Religious Minorities

     YouTube Playlist Embed
    1. What did holding an election in India require, according to the passage?
  • (a) Nomination of Candidates
  • (b) Drawing Electoral Boundaries
  • (c) Preparing Manifestos
  • (d) Conducting Political Campaigns
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Drawing Electoral Boundaries

     2. What was discovered when the first draft of the electoral rolls was published?
  • (a) Lack of Political Awareness
  • (b) 40 Lakh Women Missing
  • (c) Incorrect Political Affiliations
  • (d) Names of Illiterate Voters
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 40 Lakh Women Missing

     3. Why did the Election Commission refuse to accept certain entries in the electoral rolls?
  • (a) Political Bias
  • (b) Lack of Candidates
  • (c) Revision and Deletion Needed
  • (d) Illiteracy of Voters
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Revision and Deletion Needed

     4. What made the first general election in India unique?
  • (a) Small Electorate
  • (b) Literate Population
  • (c) Prosperous Country
  • (d) Unprecedented Scale
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Unprecedented Scale

     5. What percentage of eligible voters were literate during the first general election?
  • (a) 15%
  • (b) 50%
  • (c) 75%
  • (d) 90%
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) 15%

     6. What method of voting did the Election Commission consider due to the low literacy rate?
  • (a) Electronic Voting
  • (b) Proxy Voting
  • (c) Special Method
  • (d) Postal Voting
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Special Method

     7. What did an Indian editor call India’s experiment with universal adult franchise?
  • (a) Bold and Risky
  • (b) Biggest Gamble in History
  • (c) Foolish Venture
  • (d) Failed Democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Biggest Gamble in History

     8. According to Organiser magazine, what did they predict about Jawaharlal Nehru?
  • (a) Resignation
  • (b) Success in Elections
  • (c) Failure of Universal Adult Franchise
  • (d) Prominent Leadership
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Failure of Universal Adult Franchise

     9. What did a British member of the Indian Civil Service claim about recording votes?
  • (a) Illiterate People’s Rights
  • (b) Future Enlightenment
  • (c) Absurd Farce
  • (d) Literate Voter’s Privilege
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Absurd Farce

     10. What did the first general election of India represent?
  • (a) Prosperity
  • (b) Unprecedented Scale
  • (c) Illiteracy
  • (d) Failed Democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Unprecedented Scale

    1. Why is the 1952 election often referred to as the 1952 election even though it took place from October 1951 to February 1952?
  • (a) Postponed Twice
  • (b) Campaigning Delays
  • (c) Most Parts Voted in January 1952
  • (d) Counting Delays
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Most Parts Voted in January 1952

     2. How long did it take for the campaigning, polling, and counting to be completed for the 1952 election?
  • (a) One Month
  • (b) Three Months
  • (c) Six Months
  • (d) Twelve Months
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Six Months

     3. What was the average number of candidates for each seat in the 1952 election?
  • (a) Two
  • (b) Three
  • (c) Four
  • (d) Five
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Four

     4. What percentage of eligible voters turned out to vote on the day of elections in 1952?
  • (a) Less than 25%
  • (b) Around 50%
  • (c) More than 75%
  • (d) Exactly 100%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Around 50%

     5. How were the results of the 1952 election perceived by The Times of India?
  • (a) Unfair
  • (b) Acceptable
  • (c) Rigged
  • (d) Controversial
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Acceptable

     6. What did The Hindustan Times claim about the conduct of the Indian people in the 1952 election?
  • (a) Disappointing
  • (b) Admirable
  • (c) Corrupt
  • (d) Unreliable
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Admirable

     7. What did the Indian general election of 1952 become in the history of democracy worldwide?
  • (a) Failure
  • (b) Ordinary
  • (c) Benchmark
  • (d) Controversial
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Benchmark

     8. What did the Indian experiment with the 1952 election prove regarding democracy?
  • (a) Limited to Literate Countries
  • (b) Not Possible in Poor Conditions
  • (c) Proved Critics Right
  • (d) Can be Practiced Anywhere
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Can be Practiced Anywhere

     1. What was the expected outcome of the first general election in terms of the winning party?
  • (a) Communist Party of India
  • (b) Indian National Congress
  • (c) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (d) Janata Dal
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Indian National Congress

     2. Why was the Indian National Congress expected to win the first general election?
  • (a) Only Party with a Charismatic Leader
  • (b) Inherited the Legacy of the National Movement
  • (c) Communist Party of India’s Recommendation
  • (d) State-Level Victories
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Inherited the Legacy of the National Movement

     3. Who led the Congress campaign and toured through the country during the first general election?
  • (a) Sardar Patel
  • (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Mahatma Gandhi
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

     4. How many seats did the Congress party win in the first Lok Sabha out of the total 489 seats?
  • (a) 100
  • (b) 250
  • (c) 364
  • (d) 489
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 364

     5. Which party came next in terms of seats after the Indian National Congress in the first Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (b) Communist Party of India
  • (c) Janata Dal
  • (d) Nationalist Congress Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Communist Party of India

     6. Who became the Prime Minister after the first general election?
  • (a) Sardar Patel
  • (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Mahatma Gandhi
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

     1. During the period 1952-1962, what was the dominant party in the Lok Sabha elections?
  • (a) Communist Party of India
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (c) Indian National Congress
  • (d) Janata Dal
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Indian National Congress

     2. What was the Congress’s position in the Lok Sabha during the second and third general elections in 1957 and 1962?
  • (a) It won half of the seats
  • (b) It won one-tenth of the seats
  • (c) It maintained the same position by winning three-fourths of the seats
  • (d) It lost the majority of seats
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It maintained the same position by winning three-fourths of the seats

     3. In which state did the Congress not get the majority in the assembly elections during this period?
  • (a) Maharashtra
  • (b) Kerala
  • (c) Uttar Pradesh
  • (d) West Bengal
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Kerala

     4. What percentage of total votes did the Congress obtain in 1952?
  • (a) 25%
  • (b) 45%
  • (c) 60%
  • (d) 74%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 45%

     5. Which method of election was adopted in India, contributing to the Congress winning more seats than its proportional share?
  • (a) Proportional Representation
  • (b) Preferential Voting
  • (c) First-past-the-post
  • (d) Ranked Choice Voting
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) First-past-the-post

     6. What percentage of seats did the Socialist Party win despite securing more than 10% of the votes?
  • (a) 1%
  • (b) 3%
  • (c) 5%
  • (d) 10%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 3%

     7. What term is used for the method that tends to favor the party with more votes than others in the first-past-the-post system?
  • (a) Majority Rule
  • (b) Proportional Representation
  • (c) Gerrymandering
  • (d) Plurality
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Plurality

     8. In the 1952 elections, what percentage of seats did the Congress win despite obtaining 45% of the total votes?
  • (a) 60%
  • (b) 74%
  • (c) 50%
  • (d) 30%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 74%

     9. What did the electoral system artificially boost in terms of the Congress’s victory?
  • (a) Percentage of Votes
  • (b) Seats Won
  • (c) Opposition Strength
  • (d) Coalition Government
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Seats Won

     10. What term is used for the situation where non-Congress votes were divided between different rival parties and candidates?
  • (a) Coalition
  • (b) Plurality
  • (c) Division of Votes
  • (d) Opposition
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Division of Votes

     1. What crucial difference existed between India’s one-party dominance and that of other countries?
  • (a) India’s dominance was under democratic conditions
  • (b) Other countries had better economic conditions
  • (c) India had a multi-party system
  • (d) Other countries had compromised democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) India’s dominance was under democratic conditions

     2. Which countries mentioned in the passage permit only a single party to rule?
  • (a) India and China
  • (b) Syria and Cuba
  • (c) Myanmar and Mexico
  • (d) South Korea and Taiwan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Syria and Cuba

     3. What distinguished the Congress party’s dominance in India from other cases?
  • (a) It compromised democracy
  • (b) It was under military rule
  • (c) It happened under democratic conditions
  • (d) It was a one-party state
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It happened under democratic conditions

     4. Which party enjoyed dominance in South Africa after the end of apartheid?
  • (a) Democratic Party
  • (b) National Party
  • (c) African National Congress
  • (d) Republican Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) African National Congress

     5. What contributed to the success of the Congress party in elections?
  • (a) A well-organized party
  • (b) The ‘first off the blocks’ advantage
  • (c) Inheritance of the national movement
  • (d) All of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) All of the above

     6. What was the nature of the Congress party during the national movement?
  • (a) Regional
  • (b) Exclusive
  • (c) All-inclusive
  • (d) Elitist
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) All-inclusive

     7. Which party was considered the inheritor of the national movement?
  • (a) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (b) Indian National Congress
  • (c) Communist Party of India
  • (d) Janata Dal
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Indian National Congress

     8. Which countries were mentioned as effectively one-party states due to legal and military measures?
  • (a) Myanmar and Eritrea
  • (b) Egypt and Belarus
  • (c) Syria and Cuba
  • (d) All of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (b ) Egypt and Belarus

     9. In which state did a coalition led by the CPI form the government in 1957?
  • (a) West Bengal
  • (b) Kerala
  • (c) Tamil Nadu
  • (d) Maharashtra
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Kerala

     10. What was the Congress party’s position in the Lok Sabha during the second and third general elections?
  • (a) It won one-fourth of the seats
  • (b) It won half of the seats
  • (c) It won three-fourths of the seats
  • (d) It did not win any seats
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It won three-fourths of the seats

     1. What was the Congress party’s origin in 1885?
  • (a) A political party
  • (b) A mass movement
  • (c) A pressure group
  • (d) A social organization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) A pressure group

     2. What classes initially dominated the Congress party?
  • (a) Lower caste and lower class
  • (b) Urban elite and upper middle class
  • (c) Rural leaders with a rural orientation
  • (d) Industrialists and peasants
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Urban elite and upper middle class

     3. What happened to the social base of the Congress with each civil disobedience movement?
  • (a) It remained unchanged
  • (b) It narrowed down
  • (c) It widened
  • (d) It disappeared
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It widened

     4. What contradictory groups found space in the Congress?
  • (a) Only peasants and industrialists
  • (b) Urban dwellers and villagers
  • (c) Workers and owners
  • (d) All of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) All of the above

     5. What did the Congress become by the time of independence?
  • (a) A one-party state
  • (b) A socialist party
  • (c) A rainbow-like social coalition
  • (d) A communist party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) A rainbow-like social coalition

     6. Which party separated from the Congress and became an opposition party?
  • (a) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (b) Communist Party of India
  • (c) Janata Dal
  • (d) Congress Socialist Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Congress Socialist Party

     7. What did the Congress manage to contain despite differences?
  • (a) Political turmoil
  • (b) Social unrest
  • (c) Differences and build a consensus
  • (d) Economic challenges
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Differences and build a consensus

     8. What separated from the Congress and later became opposition parties?
  • (a) Communist Party of India
  • (b) Janata Dal
  • (c) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (d) Congress Socialist Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Congress Socialist Party

     9. What did the Congress party transform into by the time of independence?
  • (a) A one-class party
  • (b) A revolutionary party
  • (c) A mass political party
  • (d) A religious party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) A mass political party

     10. Which group did the Congress leadership expand to include?
  • (a) Only upper caste professionals
  • (b) English-speaking elite
  • (c) Agriculture-based leaders with a rural orientation
  • (d) Lower-class workers
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Agriculture-based leaders with a rural orientation

     11. What interests did the Congress manage to represent in its social coalition?
  • (a) Only urban interests
  • (b) Only upper-class interests
  • (c) Diverse interests in terms of classes and castes, religions, languages, and various interests
  • (d) Only industrialist interests
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Diverse interests in terms of classes and castes, religions, languages, and various interests

     12. What was the social base of the Congress transformed into by the time of independence?
  • (a) Urban elite
  • (b) Urban workers
  • (c) Rainbow-like social coalition
  • (d) Peasant class
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Rainbow-like social coalition

     1. What does a coalition accommodate?
  • (a) Extreme positions
  • (b) Only like-minded individuals
  • (c) All those who join it
  • (d) Uncompromising ideologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) All those who join it

     2. What are the hallmarks of a coalition?
  • (a) Extremism and confrontation
  • (b) Compromise and inclusiveness
  • (c) Rigidity and exclusivity
  • (d) Dictatorship and intolerance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Compromise and inclusiveness

     3. What became the strength of the Congress party due to its coalition-like character?
  • (a) Exclusivity
  • (b) Internal conflicts
  • (c) Rigidity
  • (d) Tolerance of internal differences
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Tolerance of internal differences

     4. What was a difficulty for the opposition?
  • (a) Lack of political agenda
  • (b) The absence of a coalition
  • (c) The strength of the Congress
  • (d) Inability to compromise
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The strength of the Congress

     5. What does the coalition strategy avoid?
  • (a) Inclusiveness
  • (b) Compromise
  • (c) Extreme positions
  • (d) Internal differences
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Extreme positions

     6. What did internal factionalism become for the Congress?
  • (a) A weakness
  • (b) An irrelevance
  • (c) A strength
  • (d) A threat
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) A strength

     7. What did internal factions often root in?
  • (a) Ideological considerations
  • (b) Democratic principles
  • (c) External pressures
  • (d) International relations
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Ideological considerations

     8. What did various factions do within the Congress?
  • (a) Left the party and formed new ones
  • (b) United to oppose the Congress
  • (c) Tolerated internal differences and remained within the party
  • (d) Joined the opposition parties
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Tolerated internal differences and remained within the party

     1. What characterizes most of the state units of the Congress?
  • (a) Singular ideology
  • (b) Unity and harmony
  • (c) Numerous factions
  • (d) Opposition dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Numerous factions

     2. What made the Congress appear as a grand centrist party?
  • (a) Unified ideology
  • (b) Ruling authority
  • (c) Numerous factions taking different ideological positions
  • (d) Opposition dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Numerous factions taking different ideological positions

     3. How did other parties primarily attempt to influence Congress?
  • (a) By dominating the Congress
  • (b) By forming alliances
  • (c) By indirectly influencing factions
  • (d) By creating alternatives
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) By indirectly influencing factions

     4. What role did the factions play within the ruling party?
  • (a) Opposition dominance
  • (b) Balancing mechanism
  • (c) Unified decision-making
  • (d) Ruling authority
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Balancing mechanism

     5. How is the first decade of electoral competition in Indian politics described?
  • (a) Period of opposition dominance
  • (b) Congress system
  • (c) Alternatives to the ruling party
  • (d) Unified decision-making
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress system

     1. What characterized India’s opposition parties during the period?
  • (a) Large representation in the Lok Sabha
  • (b) Token representation in the Lok Sabha
  • (c) Dominance over Congress
  • (d) Absence of opposition parties
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Token representation in the Lok Sabha

     2. What role did opposition parties play in maintaining the democratic character of the system?
  • (a) Dictating policies to the ruling party
  • (b) Offering criticism and checks on the ruling party
  • (c) Leading the country in the ‘sixties and ‘seventies
  • (d) Collaborating with the Congress party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Offering criticism and checks on the ruling party

     3. What did the presence of opposition parties prevent?
  • (a) Growth of Congress dominance
  • (b) Anti-democratic sentiment
  • (c) Token representation in state assemblies
  • (d) Decline in party competition
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Anti-democratic sentiment

     4. Who were some of the opposition leaders included in the interim government after Independence?
  • (a) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Dr. Ambedkar
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

     5. What happened to the personal relationships between Congress leaders and political adversaries over time?
  • (a) Intensified
  • (b) Declined
  • (c) Remained unchanged
  • (d) Strengthened
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Declined

     1. What contributed to the uniqueness of the first phase of democratic politics in India?
  • (a) Exclusionary character of the national movement
  • (b) Narrow base of social and ideological coalition
  • (c) Inclusive character of the national movement
  • (d) Dominance of a single political party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Inclusive character of the national movement

     2. What gave the Congress a head start over other political parties?
  • (a) Decline in its ability to accommodate diverse interests
  • (b) Narrowing of its social base
  • (c) Inability to attract different sections and groups
  • (d) Key role in the freedom struggle
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Key role in the freedom struggle

     3. What characterizes Congress dominance in the politics of the country?
  • (a) Permanent and unchallenged
  • (b) One phase among several
  • (c) Narrow and exclusionary
  • (d) Result of authoritarian rule
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) One phase among several

     4. What happened to the ability of the Congress to accommodate all interests over time?
  • (a) Steadily increased
  • (b) Remained unchanged
  • (c) Rapidly declined
  • (d) Became exclusionary
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Rapidly declined

     5. When will the other phases of Indian politics be discussed?
  • (a) In the next chapter
  • (b) In the next textbook
  • (c) In later parts of this textbook
  • (d) Never
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) In later parts of this textbook

     1. What method was used in the first general election to record voters’ preferences?
  • (a) Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)
  • (b) Blank ballot paper in candidate-specific boxes
  • (c) Stamping on the candidate’s name
  • (d) Voice voting
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Blank ballot paper in candidate-specific boxes

     2. How many steel boxes were used in the first general election for voters to drop their ballot papers?
  • (a) 10,000
  • (b) 20 lakh
  • (c) 1 lakh
  • (d) 50,000
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 20 lakh

     3. When did the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) begin in India?
  • (a) First general election
  • (b) In the 1990s
  • (c) In the 2004 elections
  • (d) After the second general election
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) In the 1990s

     4. What change was made to the voting method after the first two elections?
  • (a) EVMs were introduced
  • (b) Names and symbols of all candidates on the ballot paper
  • (c) Stamping on the name of the candidate
  • (d) Voice voting
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Names and symbols of all candidates on the ballot paper

     5. When did the entire country shift to Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)?
  • (a) 1990s
  • (b) 2004
  • (c) After the first two elections
  • (d) After the first general election
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 2004

     6. What information was displayed on the ballot box in the first general election?
  • (a) Only the candidate’s name
  • (b) Candidate’s name, constituency number, and polling station details
  • (c) Candidate’s symbol and name in English
  • (d) Only the candidate’s symbol
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Candidate’s name, constituency number, and polling station details

     7. What is the significance of the EVM mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) It was the first voting machine used in India
  • (b) It replaced the ballot paper method
  • (c) It was introduced after the second general election
  • (d) It was a precursor to modern voting methods
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It replaced the ballot paper method

     8. What was the Election Commission using in the 1990s before the complete shift to EVMs?
  • (a) Ballot papers with names and symbols
  • (b) Voice voting
  • (c) Blank ballot paper in candidate-specific boxes
  • (d) None of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Ballot papers with names and symbols

     9. How did the method of fixing symbols and labels on the ballot boxes change after the first two elections?
  • (a) It became more time-consuming
  • (b) It remained the same
  • (c) Sandpaper or brick rubbing was introduced
  • (d) Electronic seals were used
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sandpaper or brick rubbing was introduced

     10. What was the reason for the change in the voting method after the first two elections?
  • (a) Inefficiency of the initial method
  • (b) Introduction of Electronic Voting Machines
  • (c) Increase in the number of voters
  • (d) Simplification and inclusion of names and symbols on the ballot paper
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Simplification and inclusion of names and symbols on the ballot paper

     1. What was Maulana Abul Kalam Azad’s original name?
  • (a) Abul Kalam Mohiyuddin Ahmed
  • (b) Kalam Azad Ahmed
  • (c) Mohiyuddin Azad Kalam
  • (d) Kalam Abul Ahmed
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Abul Kalam Mohiyuddin Ahmed

     2. What role did Maulana Abul Kalam Azad play in the Constituent Assembly?
  • (a) Prime Minister
  • (b) Education Minister
  • (c) Defense Minister
  • (d) Foreign Minister
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Education Minister

     3. What was Maulana Abul Kalam Azad’s stance on Partition?
  • (a) Supported Partition
  • (b) Opposed to Partition
  • (c) Neutral on Partition
  • (d) Had no opinion on Partition
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Opposed to Partition

     1. What was Rajkumari Amrit Kaur’s role in independent India’s first ministry?
  • (a) Prime Minister
  • (b) Minister for Health
  • (c) Defense Minister
  • (d) Foreign Minister
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Minister for Health

     2. Which royal family did Rajkumari Amrit Kaur belong to?
  • (a) Jaipur
  • (b) Udaipur
  • (c) Kapurthala
  • (d) Jodhpur
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Kapurthala

     3. What was Rajkumari Amrit Kaur’s religious background?
  • (a) Hindu
  • (b) Muslim
  • (c) Christian
  • (d) Sikh
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Christian

     1. In which year did the Communist Party achieve victory in Kerala?
  • (a) 1952
  • (b) 1955
  • (c) 1957
  • (d) 1960
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1957

     2. Who was invited to form the ministry after the Communist victory in Kerala in 1957?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) E.M.S. Namboodiripad
  • (c) Sardar Patel
  • (d) Rajendra Prasad
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) E.M.S. Namboodiripad

     3. What was the response of the Congress party after losing power in Kerala in 1957?
  • (a) Acceptance
  • (b) Celebration
  • (c) Liberation struggle
  • (d) Cooperation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Liberation struggle

     4. What did the Communists claim about the agitation against their government in Kerala?
  • (a) Led by the Congress party
  • (b) Led by vested interests and religious organizations
  • (c) Democratic and peaceful
  • (d) Supported by the Communists
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Led by vested interests and religious organizations

     5. In what year did the Congress government at the Centre dismiss the Communist government in Kerala?
  • (a) 1955
  • (b) 1957
  • (c) 1959
  • (d) 1962
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1959

     6. Under which article of the Constitution was the Communist government in Kerala dismissed?
  • (a) Article 352
  • (b) Article 356
  • (c) Article 370
  • (d) Article 365
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Article 356

     7. Who was the leader of the Communist legislature party in Kerala in 1959?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Rajendra Prasad
  • (c) E.M.S. Namboodiripad
  • (d) Sardar Patel
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) E.M.S. Namboodiripad

     8. Why was the decision to dismiss the Communist government in Kerala controversial?
  • (a) It was widely supported
  • (b) It was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers
  • (c) It was a unanimous decision
  • (d) It was considered just and fair
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers

     1. When was the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) formed within the Indian National Congress?
  • (a) 1920
  • (b) 1934
  • (c) 1947
  • (d) 1955
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1934

     2. Why did the Socialists form a separate Socialist Party in 1948?
  • (a) Ideological differences with the Congress
  • (b) Electoral disappointment
  • (c) Amendment in the Congress constitution
  • (d) Pressure from the Communists
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Amendment in the Congress constitution

     3. What ideology did the Socialists believe in, distinguishing them from the Congress and Communists?
  • (a) Capitalism
  • (b) Communism
  • (c) Democratic socialism
  • (d) Authoritarianism
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Democratic socialism

     4. In what year did the Congress declare its goal to be the socialist pattern of society?
  • (a) 1950
  • (b) 1955
  • (c) 1960
  • (d) 1965
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1955

     5. Who increased their distance from and criticism of the Congress party, led by Rammanohar Lohia?
  • (a) Asoka Mehta
  • (b) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (c) Achyut Patwardhan
  • (d) S.M. Joshi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Rammanohar Lohia

     6. Which socialist leader advocated limited cooperation with the Congress?
  • (a) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (b) Achyut Patwardhan
  • (c) Asoka Mehta
  • (d) Acharya Narendra Dev
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Asoka Mehta

     7. What was the result of the Socialist Party’s electoral performance?
  • (a) Overwhelming success
  • (b) Moderate success in most states
  • (c) Success only in a few pockets
  • (d) No electoral success at all
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Success only in a few pockets

     8. Who were among the leaders of the socialist parties mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Subhas Chandra Bose and Sardar Patel
  • (c) Jayaprakash Narayan, Achyut Patwardhan, Asoka Mehta
  • (d) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Jayaprakash Narayan, Achyut Patwardhan, Asoka Mehta

     9. Which political parties in contemporary India trace their origins to the Socialist Party?
  • (a) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and Indian National Congress (INC)
  • (b) Communist Party of India (Marxist) and Communist Party of India
  • (c) Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janata Dal, Janata Dal (United), and Janata Dal (Secular)
  • (d) Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) and Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janata Dal, Janata Dal (United), and Janata Dal (Secular)

     10. What did the Congress amend in its constitution in 1948 that led to the formation of the Socialist Party?
  • (a) Membership fees
  • (b) Dual party membership
  • (c) Leadership selection process
  • (d) Foreign policy stance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Dual party membership

     1. Who was the founding President of the Congress Socialist Party?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (c) Acharya Narendra Dev
  • (d) Rammanohar Lohia
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Acharya Narendra Dev

     2. What movement was Acharya Narendra Dev active in after independence?
  • (a) Women’s suffrage movement
  • (b) Environmental movement
  • (c) Peasants’ movement
  • (d) Civil rights movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Peasants’ movement

     3. What was Acharya Narendra Dev a scholar of?
  • (a) Physics
  • (b) Buddhism
  • (c) Literature
  • (d) Political Science
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Buddhism

     1. What movement was Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar a leader of?
  • (a) Women’s suffrage movement
  • (b) Anti-caste movement
  • (c) Environmental movement
  • (d) Civil rights movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Anti-caste movement

     2. Which party did Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar found?
  • (a) Indian National Congress
  • (b) Independent Labour Party
  • (c) Communist Party of India
  • (d) Bharatiya Janata Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Independent Labour Party

     3. What position did Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar hold during the Second World War?
  • (a) Prime Minister
  • (b) President of India
  • (c) Chairman, Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly
  • (d) Member of Viceroy’s Executive Council
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Member of Viceroy’s Executive Council

     4. Which committee did Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar chair in the Constituent Assembly?
  • (a) Finance Committee
  • (b) Drafting Committee
  • (c) Judiciary Committee
  • (d) Foreign Affairs Committee
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Drafting Committee

     5. Why did Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar resign from Nehru’s first cabinet after independence?
  • (a) Health issues
  • (b) Political differences over the Hindu Code Bill
  • (c) Retirement
  • (d) Corruption charges
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Political differences over the Hindu Code Bill

     1. Which state did Rafi Ahmed Kidwai represent as a Congress leader?
  • (a) Maharashtra
  • (b) Uttar Pradesh
  • (c) West Bengal
  • (d) Gujarat
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh

     2. What ministry did Rafi Ahmed Kidwai serve in the first ministry of free India?
  • (a) Defense Ministry
  • (b) Finance Ministry
  • (c) Communications Ministry
  • (d) Foreign Affairs Ministry
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Communications Ministry

     3. Which portfolio did Rafi Ahmed Kidwai hold as a minister from 1952-54?
  • (a) Education and Culture
  • (b) Defense and Security
  • (c) Food and Agriculture
  • (d) Commerce and Industry
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Food and Agriculture

     1. What was A.K. Gopalan’s initial political affiliation?
  • (a) Communist Party
  • (b) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  • (c) Indian National Congress
  • (d) Socialist Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Indian National Congress

     2. When did A.K. Gopalan join the Communist Party?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1939
  • (c) 1952
  • (d) 1964
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1939

     3. After the split in the Communist Party in 1964, which party did A.K. Gopalan join?
  • (a) Congress Socialist Party
  • (b) Janata Dal
  • (c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M))
  • (d) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M))

     4. In which state did A.K. Gopalan serve as a Member of Parliament?
  • (a) West Bengal
  • (b) Kerala
  • (c) Maharashtra
  • (d) Tamil Nadu
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Kerala

     1. What is the title of the Marathi film based on Arun Sadhu’s novels?
  • (a) Mumbai Dinank
  • (b) Simhasan
  • (c) Digu Tipnis
  • (d) Jabbar Patel
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Simhasan

     2. Who serves as the silent ‘Sutradhar’ in the film?
  • (a) Digu Tipnis
  • (b) Jabbar Patel
  • (c) Arun Sadhu
  • (d) Nilu Phule
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Digu Tipnis

     3. What is the main focus of the film’s storyline?
  • (a) Journalistic endeavors
  • (b) Smuggling in Mumbai
  • (c) Power struggle for the Chief Minister’s post
  • (d) Rural Maharashtra’s social reality
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Power struggle for the Chief Minister’s post

     4. Who is the Finance Minister attempting to unseat in the film?
  • (a) Nilu Phule
  • (b) Digu Tipnis
  • (c) Arun Sarnaik
  • (d) Vishwasrao Dabhade
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Vishwasrao Dabhade

     5. Which character plays the role of a trade union leader?
  • (a) Mohan Agashe
  • (b) Satish Dubashi
  • (c) D’Casta
  • (d) Dr. Shreeram Lagoo
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) D’Casta

     6. What is the sub-plot involving Mumbai?
  • (a) Political bargaining
  • (b) Journalistic endeavors
  • (c) Smuggling
  • (d) Rural Maharashtra’s social reality
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Smuggling

     7. Which year was the film released?
  • (a) 1980
  • (b) 1981
  • (c) 1982
  • (d) 1983
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1981

     8. Who directed the film ‘Simhasan’?
  • (a) Nilu Phule
  • (b) Arun Sarnaik
  • (c) Datta Bhat
  • (d) Jabbar Patel
    • Answer

    Answer: (d ) Jabbar Patel

     1. What was Deen Dayal Upadhyaya’s role in the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS)?
  • (a) Part-time worker
  • (b) Occasional member
  • (c) Full-time worker since 1942
  • (d) Advisory board member
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Full-time worker since 1942

     2. Which political party did Deen Dayal Upadhyaya co-found?
  • (a) Indian National Congress
  • (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  • (c) Communist Party of India
  • (d) Samajwadi Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh

     3. What concept was initiated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya?
  • (a) Communism
  • (b) Integral Humanism
  • (c) Socialism
  • (d) Capitalism
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Integral Humanism

     1. What does the cartoon “Tug of War” depict?
  • (a) A cricket match
  • (b) A political struggle between the opposition and the government
  • (c) A cultural festival
  • (d) A religious ceremony
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) A political struggle between the opposition and the government

     2. Who are the opposition leaders shown in the cartoon?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru and his cabinet colleagues
  • (b) A. K. Gopalan, Acharya Kripalani, N.C. Chatterjee, Srikantan Nair, and Sardar Hukum Singh
  • (c) Mahatma Gandhi and his followers
  • (d) Indira Gandhi and her supporters
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) A. K. Gopalan, Acharya Kripalani, N.C. Chatterjee, Srikantan Nair, and Sardar Hukum Singh

     3. When was the cartoon “Tug of War” created?
  • (a) 15 August 1947
  • (b) 29 August 1954
  • (c) 2 October 1969
  • (d) 26 January 1950
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 29 August 1954

     1. According to Jawaharlal Nehru’s letter, what is considered more important than his presence in the Government or the Congress?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) The election of Tandon as Congress president
  • (c) Foreign policy decisions
  • (d) Social welfare programs
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The election of Tandon as Congress president

     2. Who is mentioned as the elected Congress president in Nehru’s letter?
  • (a) Rajaji
  • (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (c) Tandon
  • (d) None of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Tandon

     1. Who was sworn in as Governor-General in 1948, as mentioned in the content?
  • (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (b) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
  • (c) Maulana Azad
  • (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari

     2. Who served as the Prime Minister of India in the mentioned Cabinet?
  • (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (b) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
  • (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

     3. Who is not mentioned as part of Nehru’s Cabinet in the given content?
  • (a) Maulana Azad
  • (b) Shyama Prasad Mukherji
  • (c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
  • (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

     1. What was Shyama Prasad Mukherjee’s role in Nehru’s first cabinet after independence?
  • (a) Finance Minister
  • (b) Minister of External Affairs
  • (c) Minister of Defence
  • (d) Minister of Education
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Minister of Industry and Supply

     2. Why did Shyama Prasad Mukherjee resign from Nehru’s cabinet in 1950?
  • (a) Disagreements over economic policies
  • (b) Differences over relations with Pakistan
  • (c) Health issues
  • (d) Retirement from politics
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Differences over relations with Pakistan

     3. Which political party did Shyama Prasad Mukherjee found?
  • (a) Indian National Congress
  • (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  • (c) Communist Party of India
  • (d) Socialist Party
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh

     4. What issue was Shyama Prasad Mukherjee opposed to regarding Jammu & Kashmir?
  • (a) Autonomy
  • (b) Integration with India
  • (c) Independence
  • (d) Annexation
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Autonomy

     5. What was the outcome of Shyama Prasad Mukherjee’s involvement in the Jana Sangh’s agitation against Kashmir policy?
  • (a) Reconciliation with Nehru
  • (b) Arrest and detention
  • (c) Victory in elections
  • (d) Exile to Pakistan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Arrest and detention

     1. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, what role does hero-worship play in Indian politics?
  • (a) Minor role
  • (b) Moderate role
  • (c) Significant role
  • (d) Negligible role
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Significant role

     2. Why does Dr. B.R. Ambedkar express concern about hero-worship in politics?
  • (a) It leads to degradation and dictatorship
  • (b) It promotes democracy
  • (c) It ensures political stability
  • (d) It enhances public trust
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) It leads to degradation and dictatorship

    The post CHAPTER 2 ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE MCQ appeared first on .

    ]]>         Politics in India since Independence MCQs https://notesjobs.in/politics-in-india-since-independence-mcqs/ Mon, 08 Jan 2024 13:43:42 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14589 CHAPTER 1: CHALLENGES OF NATION BUILDING CHAPTER 2: ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE CHAPTER 3: POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT CHAPTER 4: INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM CHAPTER 6: THE CRISIS OF DEMOCRATIC ORDER CHAPTER 7: REGIONAL ASPIRATIONS CHAPTER 8: RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIAN POLITICS

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    ]]>     CHAPTER 1: CHALLENGES OF NATION BUILDING

    CHAPTER 2: ERA OF ONE-PARTY DOMINANCE

    CHAPTER 3: POLITICS OF PLANNED DEVELOPMENT

    CHAPTER 4: INDIA’S EXTERNAL RELATIONS

    CHAPTER 5: CHALLENGES TO AND RESTORATION OF THE CONGRESS SYSTEM

    CHAPTER 6: THE CRISIS OF DEMOCRATIC ORDER

    CHAPTER 7: REGIONAL ASPIRATIONS

    CHAPTER 8: RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIAN POLITICS

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    ]]>         Class 12 Chapter 1 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ https://notesjobs.in/class-12-chapter-1-challenges-of-nation-building-mcq/ Mon, 08 Jan 2024 13:22:29 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14582 Class 12 Chapter 1 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ 1. What was the famous speech delivered by Jawaharlal Nehru on the night of 14-15 August 1947? (a) Midnight Address (b) Tryst with Destiny (c) Independence Proclamation (d) Constituent Assembly Speech Answer Answer: (b) Tryst with Destiny 2. What were the two goals agreed upon by ... Read more

    The post Class 12 Chapter 1 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ appeared first on .

    ]]>     Class 12 Chapter 1 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ

    1. What was the famous speech delivered by Jawaharlal Nehru on the night of 14-15 August 1947?
  • (a) Midnight Address
  • (b) Tryst with Destiny
  • (c) Independence Proclamation
  • (d) Constituent Assembly Speech
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Tryst with Destiny

     2. What were the two goals agreed upon by almost everyone in the national movement after independence?
  • (a) Military Rule and Economic Prosperity
  • (b) Democratic Government and Social Justice
  • (c) Monarchy and Religious Freedom
  • (d) Autocracy and Wealth Accumulation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Democratic Government and Social Justice

     3. In which year did India gain independence?
  • (a) 1945
  • (b) 1947
  • (c) 1950
  • (d) 1962
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1947

     4. What accompanied India’s independence in 1947?
  • (a) Economic Prosperity
  • (b) Partition and Violence
  • (c) Peaceful Transition
  • (d) International Recognition
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Partition and Violence

     5. What was the primary focus of the government after independence, according to the passage?
  • (a) Economic Growth
  • (b) Military Strength
  • (c) Social Justice and Welfare
  • (d) Religious Freedom
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Social Justice and Welfare

     6. What term is used to describe the challenges faced by India at the time of its independence in 1947?
  • (a) Economic Crisis
  • (b) Political Turmoil
  • (c) Difficult Circumstances
  • (d) International Pressure
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Difficult Circumstances

     YouTube Playlist Embed
    7. What was the first and immediate challenge faced by independent India?
  • (a) Economic Development
  • (b) National Unity
  • (c) Religious Harmony
  • (d) Political Dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) National Unity

     8. What was widely believed about a country with India’s diversity in languages, cultures, and religions?
  • (a) It would remain united forever
  • (b) It could not remain together for long
  • (c) It would easily assimilate diversity
  • (d) Diversity would lead to economic growth
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It could not remain together for long

     9. What was the main question regarding the future of India after partition?
  • (a) How to achieve economic development?
  • (b) Would India survive as a unified country?
  • (c) What would be the dominant religion?
  • (d) How to establish a monarchy?
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Would India survive as a unified country?

     10. What form of government did India adopt to address the second challenge?
  • (a) Autocracy
  • (b) Parliamentary Democracy
  • (c) Monarchy
  • (d) Oligarchy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Parliamentary Democracy

     11. What did the Constitution grant to every citizen to ensure political participation?
  • (a) Right to Property
  • (b) Right to Education
  • (c) Fundamental Rights
  • (d) Right to Assemble
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Fundamental Rights

     12. What did the Constitution emphasize regarding the development and well-being of society?
  • (a) Economic Dominance
  • (b) Religious Homogeneity
  • (c) Equality and Special Protection
  • (d) Military Strength
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Equality and Special Protection

     13. What did the Directive Principles of State Policy outline?
  • (a) Economic Policies
  • (b) Welfare Goals
  • (c) Religious Practices
  • (d) Military Strategies
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Welfare Goals

     14. What was the real challenge after laying down the welfare goals in the Constitution?
  • (a) Ensuring Military Superiority
  • (b) Evolution of Effective Economic Policies
  • (c) Eradication of Poverty
  • (d) Upholding Fundamental Rights
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Evolution of Effective Economic Policies

     15. Which form of democracy did India establish?
  • (a) Direct Democracy
  • (b) Representative Democracy
  • (c) Autocratic Democracy
  • (d) Oligarchic Democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Representative Democracy

     16. What did the second challenge involve beyond having a democratic constitution?
  • (a) Economic Policies
  • (b) Developing Democratic Practices
  • (c) Religious Practices
  • (d) Military Strategies
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Developing Democratic Practices

     1. What is the primary focus of the book mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Economic Development
  • (b) Political Events Since Independence
  • (c) Challenges of National Unity
  • (d) Historical Context of Independence
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Political Events Since Independence

     2. In the first three chapters of the book, what challenges are discussed in the early years after independence?
  • (a) Economic Challenges
  • (b) Nation-building, Democracy, and Economic Development
  • (c) Challenges of National Unity
  • (d) Challenges of Regional Disparities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Nation-building, Democracy, and Economic Development

     3. What is the primary focus of the chapter discussed in the passage?
  • (a) Economic Development
  • (b) Challenges of National Unity
  • (c) Events Leading to Independence
  • (d) Nation-building after Independence
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Nation-building after Independence

     4. What does the passage state about the challenge of national unity?
  • (a) It was not a significant concern at the time of independence
  • (b) It was the primary challenge immediately after independence
  • (c) It only affected certain regions of India
  • (d) It was addressed through economic development
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It was the primary challenge immediately after independence

     5. What did India have to reflect in its unity, according to the passage?
  • (a) Military Strength
  • (b) Aspirations of People Across Regions
  • (c) Economic Prosperity
  • (d) Political Dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Aspirations of People Across Regions

     6. What will be discussed in the next two chapters of the book mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Historical Context of Independence
  • (b) Challenges of Economic Development
  • (c) Challenges of National Unity
  • (d) Democracy and Economic Development with Equality and Justice
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Democracy and Economic Development with Equality and Justice

     1. What significant event occurred on 14-15 August 1947?
  • (a) Formation of the United Nations
  • (b) Independence of India and Pakistan
  • (c) Signing of a Peace Treaty
  • (d) Establishment of a Federal Republic
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Independence of India and Pakistan

     2. What was the result of the ‘partition’ mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Formation of a Union of States
  • (b) Division of British India into India and Pakistan
  • (c) Integration of Princely States
  • (d) Formation of a Confederation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Division of British India into India and Pakistan

     3. What was the basis of the ‘two-nation theory’?
  • (a) Linguistic Differences
  • (b) Religious Differences
  • (c) Cultural Diversity
  • (d) Ethnic Variation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Religious Differences

     4. According to the ‘two-nation theory,’ which two ‘people’ did India consist of?
  • (a) Hindus and Sikhs
  • (b) Hindus and Christians
  • (c) Hindus and Muslims
  • (d) Hindus and Buddhists
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Hindus and Muslims

     5. What did the Muslim League demand based on the ‘two-nation theory’?
  • (a) Autonomy for Muslim-majority regions
  • (b) Integration with Hindu-majority regions
  • (c) Independence for all religious communities
  • (d) A separate country for Muslims (Pakistan)
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) A separate country for Muslims (Pakistan)

     6. What was the Congress’s stance on the ‘two-nation theory’ and the demand for Pakistan?
  • (a) Supportive
  • (b) Neutral
  • (c) Opposed
  • (d) Indifferent
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Opposed

     7. What were the factors that led to the decision for the creation of Pakistan?
  • (a) Economic Cooperation
  • (b) Political Competition
  • (c) Social Harmony
  • (d) Environmental Concerns
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Political Competition

     8. What marked the culmination of the political developments mentioned in the history textbooks?
  • (a) Signing of a Peace Accord
  • (b) Declaration of Independence
  • (c) Drawing of the Border Demarcating India and Pakistan
  • (d) Formation of the United Nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Drawing of the Border Demarcating India and Pakistan

     1. What was the basis for the division of British India into India and Pakistan?
  • (a) Linguistic majorities
  • (b) Religious majorities
  • (c) Ethnic majorities
  • (d) Cultural majorities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Religious majorities

     2. What was the principle followed for deciding the territory of Pakistan?
  • (a) Linguistic Distribution
  • (b) Cultural Diversity
  • (c) Religious Majorities
  • (d) Geographical Proximity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Religious Majorities

     3. Why was the division of India and Pakistan painful and difficult to implement?
  • (a) Linguistic Differences
  • (b) Economic Disparities
  • (c) Religious Complexities
  • (d) Political Disagreements
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Religious Complexities

     4. Why was the idea of dividing based on religious majorities difficult to implement?
  • (a) There were no religious majorities in British India
  • (b) Muslim-majority areas were not concentrated in a single belt
  • (c) The concept of religious majorities was rejected
  • (d) Religious majorities were evenly distributed
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Muslim-majority areas were not concentrated in a single belt

     5. Why was Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s opposition to the two-nation theory ignored?
  • (a) Lack of Popular Support
  • (b) Regional Disunity
  • (c) Political Compromise
  • (d) Staunch Support from the Muslim League
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Political Compromise

     6. What was the fate of the North Western Frontier Province (NWFP) in the decision for the creation of Pakistan?
  • (a) Independence
  • (b) Merger with India
  • (c) Merged with Pakistan
  • (d) Division into East and West NWFP
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Merged with Pakistan

     7. What problem did the decision to bifurcate Punjab and Bengal create?
  • (a) Administrative Challenges
  • (b) Religious Tensions
  • (c) Linguistic Divisions
  • (d) Cultural Disparities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Religious Tensions

     8. Why did a large number of people not know their national status on the day of Independence?
  • (a) Lack of Communication
  • (b) Bifurcation at District Level
  • (c) Administrative Delay
  • (d) Religious Confusion
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Bifurcation at District Level

     9. What caused the deepest trauma of Partition, according to the passage?
  • (a) Political Conflicts
  • (b) Administrative Challenges
  • (c) Bifurcation of Punjab and Bengal
  • (d) Division of India and Pakistan
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Bifurcation of Punjab and Bengal

     10. What guided the decision to form Pakistan based on religious majorities?
  • (a) Economic Prosperity
  • (b) Cultural Unity
  • (c) Linguistic Harmony
  • (d) Religious Majorities
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Religious Majorities

     11. Why was the division of India and Pakistan described as “very painful”?
  • (a) Economic Struggles
  • (b) Political Differences
  • (c) Religious Complexities
  • (d) Linguistic Divisions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Religious Complexities

     12. How were Punjab and Bengal decided to be bifurcated?
  • (a) Administrative Divisions
  • (b) Cultural Affinities
  • (c) Religious Majorities at District Level
  • (d) Linguistic Diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Religious Majorities at District Level

     1. What is the main focus of the passage?
  • (a) Economic challenges after Partition
  • (b) Problems of minorities during Partition
  • (c) Political complications of Partition
  • (d) Administrative difficulties post-Independence
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Problems of minorities during Partition

     2. What is described as the “fourth and most intractable” problem of Partition?
  • (a) Economic Disparities
  • (b) Minority Issues
  • (c) Administrative Challenges
  • (d) Political Complications
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Minority Issues

     3. What groups found themselves trapped on both sides of the border during Partition?
  • (a) Linguistic Minorities
  • (b) Religious Minorities
  • (c) Ethnic Minorities
  • (d) Cultural Minorities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Religious Minorities

     4. What was the reaction of minorities on both sides as soon as it became clear that the country was going to be partitioned?
  • (a) Celebration
  • (b) Protest
  • (c) Violence
  • (d) Negotiation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Violence

     5. What did minorities on both sides hope initially about the violence?
  • (a) Permanent solution
  • (b) Temporary and controllable
  • (c) Political intervention
  • (d) Peaceful resolution
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Temporary and controllable

     6. What happened to the violence targeting minorities on both sides?
  • (a) It intensified
  • (b) It ceased immediately
  • (c) It was politically resolved
  • (d) It was controlled successfully
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) It intensified

     7. What option were minorities on both sides left with due to the escalating violence?
  • (a) Active resistance
  • (b) Legal action
  • (c) Leaving their homes
  • (d) Seeking government protection
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Leaving their homes

     8. What was the scale of the problem related to minorities on both sides of the border?
  • (a) Limited
  • (b) Unanticipated
  • (c) Easily manageable
  • (d) Predictable
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Unanticipated

     1. What significant event took place in 1947, according to the passage?
  • (a) World War II
  • (b) Independence of India
  • (c) Partition of India
  • (d) Formation of the United Nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Partition of India

     2. What is described as one of the largest, most abrupt, and tragic transfers of population in human history?
  • (a) Economic Migration
  • (b) Immigration for Employment
  • (c) Religious Conversion
  • (d) Population Transfer in 1947
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Population Transfer in 1947

     3. Which cities became divided into ‘communal zones’ during the tragic events of 1947?
  • (a) Delhi and Mumbai
  • (b) Lahore, Amritsar, and Kolkata
  • (c) Chennai and Hyderabad
  • (d) Jaipur and Ahmedabad
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Lahore, Amritsar, and Kolkata

     4. What term is used to describe the areas where Muslims, Hindus, or Sikhs predominantly lived and avoided each other?
  • (a) Communal Harmony
  • (b) Religious Unity
  • (c) Communal Zones
  • (d) Cultural Diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Communal Zones

     5. What challenges did minorities on both sides face when forced to abandon their homes?
  • (a) Economic Challenges
  • (b) Administrative Support
  • (c) Immense Sufferings
  • (d) Social Integration
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Immense Sufferings

     6. Where did minorities often secure temporary shelter during the upheavals of 1947?
  • (a) Religious Institutions
  • (b) Refugee Camps
  • (c) Government Buildings
  • (d) Private Residences
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Refugee Camps

     7. How did people often travel to the other side of the new border during the tragic events of 1947?
  • (a) Luxury Cars
  • (b) Public Transportation
  • (c) By Foot
  • (d) Air Travel
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) By Foot

     8. What fate awaited many women who were abducted during the tragic events of 1947?
  • (a) Rescue by Authorities
  • (b) Forced into Marriage
  • (c) Return to Their Families
  • (d) Abduction by the Government
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Forced into Marriage

     What phrase have writers, poets, and film-makers often used to describe the trauma of Partition?
  • (a) Division of Assets
  • (b) Division of Hearts
  • (c) Partition of Properties
  • (d) Administrative Separation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Division of Hearts

     What is estimated to have forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border?
  • (a) Administrative Concerns
  • (b) Partition-related Violence
  • (c) Financial Strains
  • (d) Political Division
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Partition-related Violence

     What was violently separated during the Partition?
  • (a) Administrative Apparatus
  • (b) Financial Assets
  • (c) Communities
  • (d) Government Employees
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Communities

     Apart from the political division of the country, what else got divided during the Partition?
  • (a) Religious Assets
  • (b) Tables, Chairs, and Typewriters
  • (c) Musical Instruments
  • (d) Administrative Liabilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Tables, Chairs, and Typewriters

     How many people are estimated to have been killed in partition-related violence?
  • (a) 1 to 5 lakh
  • (b) 5 to 10 lakh
  • (c) 10 to 15 lakh
  • (d) 15 to 20 lakh
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 5 to 10 lakh

     Despite not believing in the two-nation theory, what issue did the leaders of the Indian national struggle face after partition?
  • (a) Financial Strains
  • (b) Administrative Conflicts
  • (c) Treatment of Religious Minorities
  • (d) Political Divisions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Treatment of Religious Minorities

     What percentage of the total population did the Muslim population in India account for in 1951?
  • (a) 5%
  • (b) 8%
  • (c) 10%
  • (d) 12%
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) 12%

     1. What was the primary objective behind the formation of the Muslim League in colonial India?
  • (a) To establish a Hindu nation
  • (b) To promote equality among all religions
  • (c) To demand a separate Muslim nation
  • (d) To support the national movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To demand a separate Muslim nation

     2. What was the stance of most leaders of the national movement regarding religious affiliation in India?
  • (a) Advocated superiority for one faith
  • (b) Favored Hindu dominance
  • (c) Believed in equality for all religions
  • (d) Supported the Muslim League’s agenda
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Believed in equality for all religions

     3. In what document was the ideal of a secular nation enshrined?
  • (a) Muslim League Manifesto
  • (b) Indian Constitution
  • (c) Hindu Rashtra Proposal
  • (d) National Movement Charter
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Indian Constitution

     4. What was the primary goal of organisations trying to organise Hindus in colonial India?
  • (a) Establishing a secular nation
  • (b) Promoting religious inequality
  • (c) Turning India into a Hindu nation
  • (d) Supporting the Muslim League
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Turning India into a Hindu nation

     5. According to the national movement leaders, what would not be a test of citizenship in India?
  • (a) Religious affiliation
  • (b) Political beliefs
  • (c) Social status
  • (d) Educational qualifications
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Religious affiliation

     6. Which concept did the leaders of the national movement cherish for India?
  • (a) Religious dominance
  • (b) Secular nation
  • (c) Caste-based society
  • (d) Exclusive Hindu nation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Secular nation

     1. What were the two main administrative divisions in British India?
  • (a) British Indian States and Princely States
  • (b) British Indian Provinces and Indian Territories
  • (c) British Provinces and Princely Territories
  • (d) British Indian Provinces and Princely States
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) British Indian Provinces and Princely States

     2. What characterized the governance of the British Indian Provinces?
  • (a) Direct control by princely rulers
  • (b) Democratic rule
  • (c) Paramountcy of the British crown
  • (d) Independence from British influence
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Paramountcy of the British crown

     3. What percentage of the British Indian Empire’s land area did the Princely States cover?
  • (a) 25%
  • (b) 50%
  • (c) 75%
  • (d) 100%
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) 25%

     4. How many Princely States were there just before Independence?
  • (a) 100
  • (b) 365
  • (c) 500
  • (d) 565
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) 565

     5. What did the British government announce about the Princely States with the end of their rule over India?
  • (a) They would become British territories
  • (b) They would become legally independent
  • (c) They would remain under British control
  • (d) They would join the Indian Union
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) They would become legally independent

     6. Who had the authority to decide the future of the Princely States after Independence?
  • (a) British government
  • (b) Princely rulers
  • (c) Indian citizens
  • (d) British citizens
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Princely rulers

     7. What problem did the Independence of Princely States pose for the unity of India?
  • (a) Threat of invasion
  • (b) Economic instability
  • (c) Possibility of further division
  • (d) Political corruption
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Possibility of further division

     8. Which state first announced its decision for Independence among the Princely States?
  • (a) Travancore
  • (b) Hyderabad
  • (c) Bhopal
  • (d) Jodhpur
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Travancore

     9. What was the response of rulers like the Nawab of Bhopal towards joining the Constituent Assembly?
  • (a) Enthusiastic support
  • (b) Strong opposition
  • (c) Neutrality
  • (d) Conditional acceptance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Strong opposition

     10. What did the rulers’ response to joining the Constituent Assembly indicate about democracy in Princely States?
  • (a) Strong democratic tradition
  • (b) Lack of interest in democracy
  • (c) Full commitment to democratic rights
  • (d) Inability to implement democracy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Lack of interest in democracy

     11. What three ideals was Indian Independence aimed at according to the passage?
  • (a) Unity, Democracy, and Paramountcy
  • (b) Unity, Self-determination, and Democracy
  • (c) Independence, Paramountcy, and Democracy
  • (d) Self-determination, Independence, and Unity
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Unity, Self-determination, and Democracy

     1. Who played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states and bringing most of them into the Indian Union?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (c) Sardar Patel
  • (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sardar Patel

     2. What stance did the Muslim League take regarding the division of princely states?
  • (a) Advocated for Indian Union
  • (b) Opposed Indian National Congress
  • (c) Supported division into small principalities
  • (d) Favored flexible autonomy
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Supported division into small principalities

     3. What document did the rulers of most states sign to agree to become a part of the Union of India?
  • (a) Treaty of Unity
  • (b) Agreement of Integration
  • (c) Instrument of Accession
  • (d) Pact of Union
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Instrument of Accession

     4. What was the primary consideration guiding the government’s approach in dealing with princely states?
  • (a) Autonomy for all regions
  • (b) Flexibility in negotiations
  • (c) People’s desire to join Indian Union
  • (d) Territorial integration and consolidation
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Territorial integration and consolidation

     5. What role did Sardar Patel play during the crucial period immediately following Independence?
  • (a) Prime Minister of India
  • (b) Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister
  • (c) Chief Negotiator for the British government
  • (d) Leader of the Indian National Congress
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister

     6. How did the government approach negotiations with princely states regarding autonomy?
  • (a) Rigid and non-negotiable
  • (b) Dependent on British guidance
  • (c) Flexible to accommodate plurality
  • (d) Dictated by Indian National Congress
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Flexible to accommodate plurality

     7. What did the rulers of the Princely States sign to agree to become a part of the Union of India?
  • (a) Treaty of Unity
  • (b) Agreement of Integration
  • (c) Instrument of Accession
  • (d) Pact of Union
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Instrument of Accession

     8. Which region had 14 big states, 119 small states, and numerous different administrations during the negotiations?
  • (a) Punjab
  • (b) Saurashtra (Gujarat)
  • (c) Orissa
  • (d) Rajasthan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Saurashtra (Gujarat)

     9. What proved more difficult among the Princely States than the rest during the integration process?
  • (a) Junagadh
  • (b) Hyderabad
  • (c) Kashmir
  • (d) Manipur
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Hyderabad

     10. Which princely state’s issue was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India?
  • (a) Junagadh
  • (b) Hyderabad
  • (c) Kashmir
  • (d) Manipur
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Junagadh

     1. Which was the largest Princely State surrounded entirely by Indian territory?
  • (a) Junagadh
  • (b) Hyderabad
  • (c) Kashmir
  • (d) Manipur
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Hyderabad

     2. What title did the ruler of Hyderabad carry?
  • (a) Raja
  • (b) Maharaja
  • (c) Nizam
  • (d) Nawab
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Nizam

     3. Which regions of the old Hyderabad state are mentioned as parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh today?
  • (a) Telangana and Rayalaseema
  • (b) Marathwada and Vidarbha
  • (c) Saurashtra and Kutch
  • (d) Malnad and Coastal
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Telangana and Rayalaseema

     4. What agreement did the Nizam enter into with India in November 1947 for a year?
  • (a) Unity Accord
  • (b) Standstill Agreement
  • (c) Independence Pact
  • (d) Sovereignty Treaty
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Standstill Agreement

     5. Against whose rule did the people of the Telangana region rise in the movement?
  • (a) Indian Government
  • (b) Hyderabad Congress
  • (c) Nizam
  • (d) Razakars
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Nizam

     6. Which force, unleashed by the Nizam, committed atrocities against the people?
  • (a) Indian Army
  • (b) Razakars
  • (c) Communists
  • (d) Hyderabad Congress
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Razakars

     7. What was the central government forced to do due to the atrocities of the Razakars?
  • (a) Negotiate with the Nizam
  • (b) Order the army to intervene
  • (c) Support the Razakars
  • (d) Withdraw from the situation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Order the army to intervene

     8. When did the Indian army move in to control the Nizam’s forces?
  • (a) August 1947
  • (b) November 1947
  • (c) September 1948
  • (d) December 1948
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) September 1948

     9. What did the Nizam’s surrender lead to?
  • (a) Hyderabad’s independence
  • (b) Hyderabad’s accession to India
  • (c) A new Standstill Agreement
  • (d) Formation of a new princely state
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Hyderabad’s accession to India

     10. What was the title carried by the ruler of Hyderabad?
  • (a) Maharaja
  • (b) Sultan
  • (c) Nizam
  • (d) Raja
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Nizam

     11. What role did the Communists and the Hyderabad Congress play in the movement against the Nizam’s rule?
  • (a) Supported the Nizam
  • (b) Opposed the movement
  • (c) Were neutral
  • (d) Were in the forefront of the movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Were in the forefront of the movement

     1. What agreement did the Maharaja of Manipur sign a few days before Independence?
  • (a) Independence Treaty
  • (b) Autonomy Accord
  • (c) Instrument of Accession
  • (d) Merger Pact
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Instrument of Accession

     2. What assurance did the Maharaja of Manipur receive in exchange for signing the Instrument of Accession?
  • (a) Financial assistance
  • (b) Military support
  • (c) Maintenance of internal autonomy
  • (d) Territorial expansion
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Maintenance of internal autonomy

     3. When did Manipur hold its first election based on universal adult franchise?
  • (a) August 1947
  • (b) June 1948
  • (c) September 1949
  • (d) October 1950
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) June 1948

     4. What type of monarchy did Manipur become after the elections in June 1948?
  • (a) Absolute monarchy
  • (b) Constitutional monarchy
  • (c) Democratic monarchy
  • (d) Federal monarchy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Constitutional monarchy

     5. What was Manipur’s Legislative Assembly divided over in terms of its relationship with India?
  • (a) Autonomy
  • (b) Independence
  • (c) Merger
  • (d) Annexation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Merger

     6. Which political party in Manipur favored the merger with India?
  • (a) Communist Party
  • (b) Manipur Nationalist Party
  • (c) State Congress
  • (d) Democratic Front
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) State Congress

     7. What agreement did the Maharaja of Manipur sign in September 1949 without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly?
  • (a) Independence Pact
  • (b) Autonomy Accord
  • (c) Merger Agreement
  • (d) Constitutional Pact
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Merger Agreement

     8. What did the signing of the Merger Agreement without consulting the Legislative Assembly cause in Manipur?
  • (a) Celebration and joy
  • (b) Peace and stability
  • (c) Anger and resentment
  • (d) Unity and cooperation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Anger and resentment

     1. What was the challenge after the partition and integration of Princely States in the process of nation-building?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Drawing internal boundaries
  • (c) Social integration
  • (d) Establishing diplomatic ties
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Drawing internal boundaries

     2. What principle was rejected by the national movement as the basis for state formation during colonial rule?
  • (a) Religious principle
  • (b) Administrative convenience
  • (c) Linguistic principle
  • (d) British annexation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Administrative convenience

     3. When was the linguistic principle recognized as the basis for the reorganization of the Indian National Congress party?
  • (a) 1947
  • (b) 1920
  • (c) 1935
  • (d) 1950
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1920

     4. Why did the central leadership decide to postpone the reorganization of states based on language after Independence?
  • (a) Fear of linguistic conflicts
  • (b) Focus on economic challenges
  • (c) Disruption and disintegration concerns
  • (d) Administrative convenience
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Disruption and disintegration concerns

     5. What movement began in the Telugu-speaking areas of the old Madras province demanding a separate Andhra province?
  • (a) Vishalandhra movement
  • (b) Tamil Nadu movement
  • (c) Kerala movement
  • (d) Karnataka movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Vishalandhra movement

     6. What did the Vishalandhra movement demand?
  • (a) Independence for Andhra
  • (b) Integration with Madras province
  • (c) Separate Andhra province
  • (d) Administrative convenience
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Separate Andhra province

     7. What did the central leadership feel might draw attention away from other challenges?
  • (a) Linguistic reorganization
  • (b) Economic development
  • (c) Administrative divisions
  • (d) Social integration
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Linguistic reorganization

     8. What was the response of the local leaders and people to the decision of the national leadership to postpone the reorganization?
  • (a) Acceptance and agreement
  • (b) Protest and challenge
  • (c) Celebration and joy
  • (d) Neutrality and indifference
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Protest and challenge

     9. What principle did the national movement promise as the basis for the formation of states?
  • (a) Religious principle
  • (b) Administrative convenience
  • (c) Linguistic principle
  • (d) British annexation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Linguistic principle

     10. What changed after Independence and partition regarding the reorganization of states?
  • (a) Focus on economic challenges
  • (b) Linguistic principle rejected
  • (c) Administrative divisions continued
  • (d) Linguistic reorganization postponed
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Linguistic reorganization postponed

     11. What did the Vishalandhra movement demand for the Telugu-speaking areas?
  • (a) Independence
  • (b) Integration with Madras province
  • (c) Separate Andhra province
  • (d) Autonomy within Madras province
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Separate Andhra province

     12. Why did the central leadership decide to postpone the reorganization based on language?
  • (a) Fear of linguistic conflicts
  • (b) Focus on economic challenges
  • (c) Disruption and disintegration concerns
  • (d) Administrative convenience
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Disruption and disintegration concerns

     13. What did the Vishalandhra movement demand for the Telugu-speaking areas?
  • (a) Independence
  • (b) Integration with Madras province
  • (c) Separate Andhra province
  • (d) Autonomy within Madras province
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Separate Andhra province

     14. What did the local leaders and people do in response to the decision to postpone reorganization?
  • (a) Acceptance and agreement
  • (b) Protest and challenge
  • (c) Celebration and joy
  • (d) Neutrality and indifference
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Protest and challenge

     15. What principle did the national movement promise as the basis for the formation of states?
  • (a) Religious principle
  • (b) Administrative convenience
  • (c) Linguistic principle
  • (d) British annexation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Linguistic principle

     1. What Congress leader and Gandhian went on an indefinite fast, resulting in his death after 56 days?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Sardar Patel
  • (c) Potti Sriramulu
  • (d) Rajendra Prasad
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Potti Sriramulu

     2. What event caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in the Andhra region?
  • (a) Formation of a separate Andhra state
  • (b) Death of a Congress leader
  • (c) States Reorganisation Commission
  • (d) Police firing
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Death of a Congress leader

     3. In which region did people in large numbers take to the streets during the movement?
  • (a) Madras
  • (b) Andhra
  • (c) Karnataka
  • (d) Kerala
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Andhra

     4. What did several legislators in Madras do in protest?
  • (a) Resigned their seats
  • (b) Launched a hunger strike
  • (c) Protested in the streets
  • (d) Formed a new political party
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Resigned their seats

     5. When did the Prime Minister announce the formation of a separate Andhra state?
  • (a) 1950
  • (b) 1952
  • (c) 1954
  • (d) 1956
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1952

     6. What did the formation of Andhra state spur in other parts of the country?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Linguistic struggles
  • (c) Social integration
  • (d) Administrative convenience
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Linguistic struggles

     7. What did the Central Government appoint in 1953 in response to the linguistic struggles?
  • (a) Linguistic Commission
  • (b) Boundary Reorganization Committee
  • (c) States Reorganisation Commission
  • (d) Linguistic Redrawing Board
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) States Reorganisation Commission

     8. What did the States Reorganisation Act lead to in 1956?
  • (a) Formation of 10 states
  • (b) Creation of 20 states
  • (c) Establishment of linguistic boundaries
  • (d) Merger of Andhra and Madras
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Establishment of linguistic boundaries

     1. What was one of the early concerns regarding demands for separate states in the post-independence period?
  • (a) Economic instability
  • (b) Threat to national unity
  • (c) Lack of resources
  • (d) Military intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Threat to national unity

     2. What was the initial fear associated with the creation of linguistic states?
  • (a) Economic instability
  • (b) Linguistic conflicts
  • (c) Cultural stagnation
  • (d) Political corruption
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Linguistic conflicts

     3. What influenced the leadership’s choice in favor of linguistic states?
  • (a) Economic considerations
  • (b) Cultural homogeneity
  • (c) Popular pressure
  • (d) Military intervention
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Popular pressure

     4. How was the formation of linguistic states seen in relation to democracy?
  • (a) Democratic decline
  • (b) Democratic consolidation
  • (c) Democratic dictatorship
  • (d) Democratic exclusion
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Democratic consolidation

     5. What did linguistic reorganization provide a uniform basis for?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Educational reforms
  • (c) Drawing of state boundaries
  • (d) Cultural integration
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Drawing of state boundaries

     6. How did linguistic reorganization impact the nature of democratic politics?
  • (a) Exclusionary
  • (b) Homogeneous
  • (c) Inclusive
  • (d) Authoritarian
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Inclusive

     7. What did the acceptance of the principle of diversity through linguistic states underline?
  • (a) Cultural assimilation
  • (b) Economic uniformity
  • (c) Homogeneous society
  • (d) Diversity and plurality
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Diversity and plurality

     8. What was associated with the path to politics and power in the post-linguistic reorganization period?
  • (a) Linguistic conflicts
  • (b) Small English-speaking elite
  • (c) Economic instability
  • (d) Cultural stagnation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Small English-speaking elite

     1. What marked the end of communal violence between Hindus and Muslims in Kolkata in 1947?
  • (a) Joint prayer meetings
  • (b) Flag hoisting by political leaders
  • (c) Flying flags of India and Pakistan together
  • (d) A peace conference
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Flying flags of India and Pakistan together

     2. What were the three main challenges faced by independent India in the first decade after 1947?
  • (a) Economic development, education, and healthcare
  • (b) National unity, territorial integrity, and linguistic diversity
  • (c) Military strength, diplomatic relations, and foreign trade
  • (d) Cultural revival, social reforms, and technological advancement
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) National unity, territorial integrity, and linguistic diversity

     3. What did partition result in, challenging the idea of a secular India?
  • (a) Economic disparities
  • (b) Large-scale violence and displacement
  • (c) Political instability
  • (d) Religious conversions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Large-scale violence and displacement

     4. What needed urgent resolution in the integration of the princely states into the Indian union?
  • (a) Economic policies
  • (b) Social reforms
  • (c) Territorial integrity
  • (d) Political alliances
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Territorial integrity

     5. What needed to be drawn afresh to meet the aspirations of people who spoke different languages?
  • (a) Administrative boundaries
  • (b) Economic policies
  • (c) Internal boundaries of the country
  • (d) Cultural heritage
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Internal boundaries of the country

     6. What will be discussed in the next two chapters regarding the challenges faced by the country in the early phase?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) Social movements
  • (c) Political transitions
  • (d) Other kinds of challenges
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Other kinds of challenges

     1. What do the three stamps issued in 1950 to mark the first Republic Day on 26 January 1950 signify?
  • (a) Economic achievements
  • (b) Challenges to the new republic
  • (c) Cultural diversity
  • (d) Historical events
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Challenges to the new republic

     2. If you were asked to design these stamps in 1950, what would be the most suitable theme?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Political leaders
  • (c) Cultural heritage
  • (d) Economic progress
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Political leaders

     1. Who is the author of the poem “Subh-e-azadi” mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
  • (b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
  • (c) Zindan-Nama
  • (d) Naksh-e-Fariyadi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz

     2. In which city was Mohammad Ali Jinnah delivering the Presidential Address mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Sialkot
  • (b) Karachi
  • (c) Lahore
  • (d) Islamabad
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Karachi

     3. What is the theme of Faiz Ahmed Faiz’s poem “Subh-e-azadi” as mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Political movements
  • (b) Languid waves of the night
  • (c) The dawn of freedom
  • (d) Pakistani regime
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The dawn of freedom

     4. Where was Faiz Ahmed Faiz born?
  • (a) Karachi
  • (b) Lahore
  • (c) Sialkot
  • (d) Islamabad
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sialkot

     5. Which collections of poetry by Faiz Ahmed Faiz are mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Naksh-e-Fariyadi, Dast-e-Saba, and Zindan-Nama
  • (b) Subh-e-azadi, Naksh-e-Fariyadi, and Zindan-Nama
  • (c) Zindan-Nama, Dast-e-Saba, and Subh-e-azadi
  • (d) Subh-e-azadi, Dast-e-Saba, and Naksh-e-Fariyadi
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Naksh-e-Fariyadi, Dast-e-Saba, and Zindan-Nama

     6. In what political regime did Faiz Ahmed Faiz oppose and get imprisoned?
  • (a) Indian regime
  • (b) Pakistani regime
  • (c) British regime
  • (d) Soviet regime
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Pakistani regime

     7. According to Mohammad Ali Jinnah’s address, what has nothing to do with the business of the State in Pakistan?
  • (a) Religious beliefs
  • (b) Caste or creed
  • (c) Hindu community
  • (d) Political affiliations
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Caste or creed

     8. What did Mohammad Ali Jinnah emphasize regarding the freedom of the people in Pakistan?
  • (a) Freedom to choose their leaders
  • (b) Freedom to go to temples only
  • (c) Freedom to go to any place of worship
  • (d) Freedom to choose their professions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Freedom to go to any place of worship

     9. What was Mohammad Ali Jinnah addressing in his Presidential Address mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) United Nations Assembly
  • (b) Indian Parliament
  • (c) Constituent Assembly of Pakistan
  • (d) United Nations Security Council
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Constituent Assembly of Pakistan

     10. What aspect of the dawn is Faiz Ahmed Faiz describing in his poem “Subh-e-azadi”?
  • (a) Brightness
  • (b) Darkness
  • (c) Languid waves
  • (d) Stars in the wilderness
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Brightness

     1. Who is the author of the Punjabi poem “Aaj Akhan Waris Shah Nun” mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Amrita Pritam
  • (c) Waris Shah
  • (d) Sahitya Akademi
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Amrita Pritam

     2. What does the poem “Aaj Akhan Waris Shah Nun” by Amrita Pritam address?
  • (a) Love and affection
  • (b) Wailing saga
  • (c) The plight of Punjab
  • (d) Grieving narrator
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The plight of Punjab

     3. Which rivers are mentioned in the Punjabi poem, and what has happened to their flow?
  • (a) Ganges, poisoned by Pakistan
  • (b) Yamuna, filled with blood
  • (c) Chenab, poisoned by Pakistan
  • (d) Indus, filled with corpses
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Chenab, poisoned by Pakistan

     4. Where did Amrita Pritam make Delhi her second home after partition?
  • (a) Punjab
  • (b) Pakistan
  • (c) Sialkot
  • (d) Nagmani
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Punjab

     5. Which awards were received by Amrita Pritam, as mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Sahitya Akademi Award, Padma Shree, and Jnanapeeth Award
  • (b) Jnanapeeth Award, Sahitya Akademi Award, and Padma Shree
  • (c) Padma Shree, Jnanapeeth Award, and Sahitya Akademi Award
  • (d) Sahitya Akademi Award, Jnanapeeth Award, and Nagmani
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Sahitya Akademi Award, Padma Shree, and Jnanapeeth Award

     6. What is the subject of Jawaharlal Nehru’s letter to Chief Ministers mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Economic policies
  • (b) Minority rights and security
  • (c) Territorial integrity
  • (d) Partition horrors
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Minority rights and security

     7. According to Jawaharlal Nehru, what might happen if the Muslim minority is not treated in a civilized manner?
  • (a) Economic collapse
  • (b) Territorial disintegration
  • (c) Destruction of the body politic
  • (d) Political unrest
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Destruction of the body politic

     8. Which river is mentioned in the context of its deadly water irrigating lands?
  • (a) Ganges
  • (b) Yamuna
  • (c) Chenab
  • (d) Indus
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Chenab

     1. What is the central theme of Saadat Hasan Manto’s short story “Hospitality Delayed”?
  • (a) Celebratory feast
  • (b) Train journey
  • (c) Riot and violence
  • (d) Delayed news
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Riot and violence

     2. What happened to the passengers belonging to the other community in the story?
  • (a) They were treated to halwa, fruits, and milk.
  • (b) They were entertained lavishly.
  • (c) They were pulled out and slaughtered.
  • (d) They were delayed in their journey.
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) They were pulled out and slaughtered.

     3. What did the chief organiser mention as the reason for not entertaining the remaining passengers lavishly?
  • (a) Delayed news
  • (b) Lack of resources
  • (c) Rioters’ intervention
  • (d) Train malfunction
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Delayed news

     4. Which term best describes the atmosphere created by the rioters in the story?
  • (a) Hostile
  • (b) Celebratory
  • (c) Chaotic
  • (d) Hospitable
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Chaotic

     1. What is the central theme of the film described in the passage?
  • (a) Business struggles after partition
  • (b) Impact of partition on individuals
  • (c) Student protests for government treatment
  • (d) Migration to Pakistan
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Impact of partition on individuals

     2. What occupation does Salim Mirza have in the story?
  • (a) Farmer
  • (b) Shoe manufacturer
  • (c) Government official
  • (d) Teacher
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Shoe manufacturer

     3. What significant loss does Salim Mirza experience?
  • (a) Business decline
  • (b) Ancestral home occupation
  • (c) Tragic end of his daughter
  • (d) All of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) All of the above

     4. What dilemma does Salim Mirza face?
  • (a) Choosing between career and family
  • (b) Torn between moving to Pakistan and staying back
  • (c) Deciding on his daughter’s future
  • (d) Joining a student procession or not
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Torn between moving to Pakistan and staying back

     5. What event prompts a decisive moment for Salim Mirza?
  • (a) Business revival
  • (b) Daughter’s wedding
  • (c) Student procession demanding fair treatment
  • (d) Government’s policy change
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Student procession demanding fair treatment

     6. What year was the film released?
  • (a) 1963
  • (b) 1973
  • (c) 1983
  • (d) 1993
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1973

     1. Why didn’t Mahatma Gandhi participate in the independence day celebrations on 15th August 1947?
  • (a) He was in Kolkata
  • (b) He was unwell
  • (c) He was unhappy with the government
  • (d) He was fasting
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) He was in Kolkata

     2. What was Mahatma Gandhi’s response to the communal violence in Kolkata?
  • (a) He organized independence day celebrations
  • (b) He encouraged violence
  • (c) He persuaded Hindus and Muslims to give up violence
  • (d) He remained silent
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) He persuaded Hindus and Muslims to give up violence

     3. What was the impact of Mahatma Gandhi’s presence in Kolkata?
  • (a) Increased violence
  • (b) Communal harmony
  • (c) More riots
  • (d) Political unrest
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Communal harmony

     4. Where did Mahatma Gandhi move to after Kolkata?
  • (a) Mumbai
  • (b) Delhi
  • (c) Karachi
  • (d) Lahore
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Delhi

     5. What were Mahatma Gandhi’s concerns in Delhi?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) Religious conversion
  • (c) Rights of Muslims in India
  • (d) Expanding the Indian territory
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Rights of Muslims in India

     6. Why did Mahatma Gandhi undertake his last fast in January 1948?
  • (a) To protest against government policies
  • (b) To seek financial support for Pakistan
  • (c) To reduce communal tension and violence
  • (d) To gain political power
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To reduce communal tension and violence

     7. What was the effect of Mahatma Gandhi’s fast in Delhi?
  • (a) Increased violence
  • (b) Communal harmony
  • (c) Disagreements with the government
  • (d) Political unrest
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Communal harmony

     8. How did Mahatma Gandhi’s actions during his fast in Delhi impact the Muslims in the area?
  • (a) Forced them to leave Delhi
  • (b) Allowed them to return to their homes safely
  • (c) Increased violence against them
  • (d) Ignored their concerns
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Allowed them to return to their homes safely

     9. How did extremists in both communities react to Mahatma Gandhi’s actions?
  • (a) They praised him
  • (b) They blamed him
  • (c) They supported his initiatives
  • (d) They ignored him
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) They blamed him

     10. Who was the person responsible for Mahatma Gandhi’s assassination?
  • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (b) Nathuram Vinayak Godse
  • (c) Subhas Chandra Bose
  • (d) Sardar Patel
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Nathuram Vinayak Godse

     11. On what date did Mahatma Gandhi pass away?
  • (a) 15th August 1947
  • (b) 26th January 1950
  • (c) 2nd October 1948
  • (d) 30th January 1948
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) 30th January 1948

     12. What were the principles that Mahatma Gandhi lived and worked for?
  • (a) Socialism and communism
  • (b) Capitalism and industrialization
  • (c) Ahimsa and satyagraha
  • (d) Authoritarianism and militarism
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Ahimsa and satyagraha

     1. What was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s role in the freedom movement?
  • (a) Military General
  • (b) Congress leader
  • (c) Foreign diplomat
  • (d) Religious leader
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Congress leader

     2. What position did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel hold in independent India?
  • (a) Prime Minister
  • (b) President
  • (c) Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister
  • (d) Defense Minister
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister

     3. What role did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play in the integration of Princely States with India?
  • (a) Negotiated with the rulers and brought them into the Indian Union
  • (b) Led military campaigns to conquer the princely states
  • (c) Ignored the princely states
  • (d) Opposed the integration of princely states
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Negotiated with the rulers and brought them into the Indian Union

     4. What committees was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel a member of in the Constituent Assembly?
  • (a) Committee on Education and Culture
  • (b) Committee on Economic Planning
  • (c) Committees on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, Provincial Constitution, etc
  • (d) Committee on International Relations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Committees on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, Provincial Constitution, etc

     1. What was Potti Sriramulu’s role during the Salt Satyagraha?
  • (a) He led the movement
  • (b) He opposed the movement
  • (c) He remained neutral
  • (d) He left his government job to participate
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) He left his government job to participate

     2. What significant demand did Potti Sriramulu make in 1946?
  • (a) Demand for separate state
  • (b) Demand for educational reforms
  • (c) Demand for agricultural policies
  • (d) Demand for opening temples to dalits
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Demand for opening temples to dalits

     3. What did Potti Sriramulu demand through his fast unto death in 1952?
  • (a) Independence for his region
  • (b) Separate state of Andhra
  • (c) Religious freedom
  • (d) Economic reforms
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Separate state of Andhra

     4. When did Potti Sriramulu undertake his fast unto death?
  • (a) 1946
  • (b) 1952
  • (c) 1942
  • (d) 1950
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1952

     5. When did Potti Sriramulu pass away during his fast?
  • (a) 19 October 1952
  • (b) 15 December 1952
  • (c) 26 January 1947
  • (d) 2 March 1955
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 15 December 1952

     1. What was the initial experiment in linguistic states in Bombay?
  • (a) Gujarati state
  • (b) Marathi state
  • (c) Bilingual Bombay state
  • (d) Hindi state
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Bilingual Bombay state

     2. What led to the creation of Maharashtra and Gujarat states in 1960?
  • (a) Linguistic demands
  • (b) Cultural demands
  • (c) Economic demands
  • (d) Political demands
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Linguistic demands

     3. When did Punjab get statehood, and what territories were separated from it?
  • (a) 1956, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
  • (b) 1966, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
  • (c) 1956, Haryana and Jharkhand
  • (d) 1966, Haryana and Jharkhand
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1966, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh

     4. When did Meghalaya become a separate state?
  • (a) 1956
  • (b) 1972
  • (c) 1963
  • (d) 1987
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1972

     5. Which states emerged in the north-east in 1972?
  • (a) Punjab and Haryana
  • (b) Manipur and Tripura
  • (c) Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura
  • (d) Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura

     6. When did Nagaland become a state?
  • (a) 1956
  • (b) 1963
  • (c) 1972
  • (d) 1987
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1963

     7. What were the three states created in 2000?
  • (a) Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Haryana
  • (b) Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand
  • (c) Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh
  • (d) Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand

     8. When did Telangana emerge as a new state?
  • (a) 2000
  • (b) 2014
  • (c) 1972
  • (d) 1987
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 2014

     9. What regions in the country currently have movements demanding separate and smaller states?
  • (a) Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh
  • (b) Vidarbha, Harit Pradesh, and West Bengal
  • (c) Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Haryana
  • (d) Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Vidarbha, Harit Pradesh, and West Bengal

     10. What was the basis for the creation of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand in 2000?
  • (a) Linguistic demands
  • (b) Cultural demands
  • (c) Economic demands
  • (d) Regional demands
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Regional demands

     11. What led to the emergence of Telangana as a new state in 2014?
  • (a) Linguistic demands
  • (b) Cultural demands
  • (c) Economic demands
  • (d) Regional demands
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Linguistic demands

     12. What is the current status of the story of reorganisation of states in India?
  • (a) Completed
  • (b) Ongoing
  • (c) Yet to begin
  • (d) Suspended
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Ongoing

     1. According to Mahatma Gandhi, what would the formation of linguistic provinces give a fillip to?
  • (a) National language
  • (b) English language
  • (c) Regional languages
  • (d) Foreign languages
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Regional languages

     2. According to Mahatma Gandhi, why would it be absurd to make Hindustani the medium of instruction in all regions?
  • (a) Hindustani is not a widely spoken language
  • (b) Hindustani is difficult to learn
  • (c) It would undermine regional languages
  • (d) Hindustani lacks cultural significance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It would undermine regional languages

     1. What is the significance of the moment in the history of India mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Independence from British rule
  • (b) The announcement of partition
  • (c) Cooperation among Indian States
  • (d) Anarchy and chaos
    • Answer: (a) Independence from British rule
    2. According to Sardar Patel, what will happen if Indian States do not cooperate and work together?
  • (a) Unexpected calamities
  • (b) Total ruin
  • (c) Anarchy and chaos
  • (d) Both (b) and (c)
    • Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
    3. What does Mahatma Gandhi express about the day of August 14, 1947?
  • (a) A day of mourning
  • (b) A day of rejoicing
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) A regular day
    • Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
    4. In Sardar Patel’s letter, what does he fear will overwhelm India?
  • (a) Lack of unity
  • (b) Unexpected calamities
  • (c) Anarchy and chaos
  • (d) British domination
    • Answer: (c) Anarchy and chaos
    5. What is the dual nature of the day mentioned by Mahatma Gandhi?
  • (a) Independence and partition
  • (b) Rejoicing and mourning
  • (c) Celebration and tragedy
  • (d) Sorrow and joy
    • Answer: (b) Rejoicing and mourning
    6. According to Sardar Patel, what can raise the country to new greatness?
  • (a) Independence from British rule
  • (b) Cooperation and unity
  • (c) Lack of unity
  • (d) Anarchy and chaos
    • Answer: (b) Cooperation and unity
    1. According to Mahatma Gandhi, what significant event is happening on August 14, 1947?
  • (a) Independence from British rule
  • (b) Partition of India
  • (c) Kolkata’s day of rejoicing
  • (d) Day of mourning
    • Answer: (b) Partition of India
    2. What does Mahatma Gandhi emphasize about the day of August 14, 1947?
  • (a) Kolkata’s day of rejoicing
  • (b) A regular day
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Day of mourning and rejoicing
    • Answer: (d) Day of mourning and rejoicing
    3. What is the mood conveyed by Mahatma Gandhi regarding the events on August 14, 1947?
  • (a) Celebration
  • (b) Joyous dancing in the streets
  • (c) A mixture of joy and sorrow
  • (d) Solemn mourning
    • Answer: (c) A mixture of joy and sorrow
    4. In what city did Mahatma Gandhi make the statement on August 14, 1947?
  • (a) Delhi
  • (b) Kolkata
  • (c) Mumbai
  • (d) Chennai
    • Answer: (b) Kolkata
    5. What does the phrase “slavery of the British domination” refer to in the context of Mahatma Gandhi’s statement?
  • (a) Economic exploitation
  • (b) Colonial rule
  • (c) Political subjugation
  • (d) Both (b) and (c)
    • Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

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    ]]>         Class 12 CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS MCQs https://notesjobs.in/class-12-contemporary-world-politics-mcqs/ Sun, 07 Jan 2024 07:04:36 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14578 Class 12 CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS MCQs CHAPTER 1: THE END OF BIPOLARITY CHAPTER 2: ALTERNATIVE CENTRES OF POWER CHAPTER 3: CONTEMPORARY SOUTH ASIA CHAPTER 4: INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATIONS CHAPTER 5: SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD CHAPTER 6: ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES CHAPTER 7: GLOBALISATION

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    ]]>     Class 12 CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS MCQs

    CHAPTER 1: THE END OF BIPOLARITY

    CHAPTER 2: ALTERNATIVE CENTRES OF POWER

    CHAPTER 3: CONTEMPORARY SOUTH ASIA

    CHAPTER 4: INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATIONS

    CHAPTER 5: SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD

    CHAPTER 6: ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES

    CHAPTER 7: GLOBALISATION

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    ]]>         Class 12 Ch. 7 Globalisation MCQ https://notesjobs.in/class-12-ch-7-globalisation-mcq/ Sun, 07 Jan 2024 06:33:43 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14566 Class 12 Ch. 7 Globalisation MCQ 1. What is the primary focus of the final chapter of the book? (a) Regional politics (b) Globalisation (c) Cultural heritage (d) Technological advancements Answer Answer: (b) Globalisation 2. What does the passage mention as the starting point of the analysis in the final chapter? (a) Historical events (b) ... Read more

    The post Class 12 Ch. 7 Globalisation MCQ appeared first on .

    ]]>     Class 12 Ch. 7 Globalisation MCQ

    1. What is the primary focus of the final chapter of the book?
  • (a) Regional politics
  • (b) Globalisation
  • (c) Cultural heritage
  • (d) Technological advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Globalisation

     2. What does the passage mention as the starting point of the analysis in the final chapter?
  • (a) Historical events
  • (b) Political movements
  • (c) The concept of globalisation
  • (d) Economic theories
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The concept of globalisation

     3. What aspects of globalisation are discussed at length in the final chapter?
  • (a) Historical impact
  • (b) Cultural consequences
  • (c) Scientific advancements
  • (d) Regional politics
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural consequences

     4. What does the passage suggest is a part of the resistance to globalisation?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Social movements in India
  • (c) Political alliances
  • (d) Technological advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Social movements in India

     1. What aspect of globalisation is illustrated by Janardhan’s daily routine?
  • (a) Movement of commodities
  • (b) Cultural exchange
  • (c) Globalisation of services
  • (d) Technological advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Globalisation of services

     2. What does Ramdhari’s birthday purchases illustrate about globalisation?
  • (a) Movement of commodities
  • (b) Cultural exchange
  • (c) Technological advancements
  • (d) Migration patterns
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Movement of commodities

     3. What conflict does Sarika face, as mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Technological conflict
  • (b) Cultural conflict
  • (c) Conflict of values
  • (d) Economic conflict
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Conflict of values

     4. What time does Janardhan work in the call centre?
  • (a) Daytime
  • (b) Evening
  • (c) Night
  • (d) Early morning
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Night

     5. Where is the cycle purchased by Ramdhari manufactured?
  • (a) India
  • (b) USA
  • (c) China
  • (d) Europe
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) China

     6. What did Sarika’s family not dream of earlier?
  • (a) Owning a car
  • (b) Independent career for women
  • (c) Foreign travel
  • (d) Higher education
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Independent career for women

     7. What is the primary focus of Janardhan’s job in the call centre?
  • (a) Providing healthcare services
  • (b) IT support
  • (c) Customer service
  • (d) Language translation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Customer service

     8. What is the primary factor influencing Sarika’s decision to take on a job?
  • (a) Social media influence
  • (b) Family traditions
  • (c) New opportunities for women
  • (d) Cultural values
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) New opportunities for women

     1. What negative consequence of globalisation is highlighted in the example of farmers?
  • (a) Loss of cultural identity
  • (b) Economic disparity
  • (c) Environmental degradation
  • (d) Suicide due to crop failure
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Suicide due to crop failure

     2. What is the concern raised by retail shopkeepers in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Increased competition
  • (b) Economic disparity
  • (c) Loss of cultural identity
  • (d) Environmental degradation
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Increased competition

     3. What accusation was made against a film producer in Mumbai in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Copyright infringement
  • (b) Cultural appropriation
  • (c) Plagiarism
  • (d) Technological advancement
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Plagiarism

     4. What negative consequence of globalisation is depicted in the example of the militant group?
  • (a) Loss of cultural identity
  • (b) Economic disparity
  • (c) Threats to women’s safety
  • (d) Environmental degradation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Threats to women’s safety

     5. What belief is mentioned regarding the consequences of globalisation?
  • (a) Positive outcomes outweigh the negative
  • (b) Negative outcomes outweigh the positive
  • (c) Economic issues are the only concern
  • (d) Direction of influence is always from rich to poor
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Negative outcomes outweigh the positive

     1. What is the fundamental aspect of globalisation as discussed in the passage?
  • (a) Political interconnectedness
  • (b) Cultural manifestations
  • (c) Worldwide flows and interconnectedness
  • (d) Economic dimensions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Worldwide flows and interconnectedness

     2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a type of flow in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Ideas
  • (b) Capital
  • (c) Energy
  • (d) People
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Energy

     3. What does the passage emphasize about the multidimensional nature of globalisation?
  • (a) Economic dimensions are dominant
  • (b) Cultural phenomenon is exclusive
  • (c) It has political, economic, and cultural manifestations
  • (d) Economic and cultural dimensions are interconnected
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It has political, economic, and cultural manifestations

     4. What warning does the passage provide regarding assumptions about globalisation?
  • (a) Economic dimensions must be prioritized
  • (b) Cultural phenomenon is exclusive
  • (c) Avoid drawing general conclusions without considering specific contexts
  • (d) Cultural manifestations are irrelevant
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Avoid drawing general conclusions without considering specific contexts

     5. What term is used to describe the uneven impact of globalisation in the passage?
  • (a) Global imbalance
  • (b) Worldwide interconnectedness
  • (c) Multidimensional effect
  • (d) Vastly uneven
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Vastly uneven

     6. What is highlighted as a crucial element in the concept of globalisation?
  • (a) Economic dimensions
  • (b) Cultural manifestations
  • (c) Political interconnectedness
  • (d) Worldwide interconnectedness
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Worldwide interconnectedness

     1. What makes contemporary globalisation unique, according to the passage?
  • (a) Historical basis
  • (b) Novel flows
  • (c) Scale and speed of flows
  • (d) Single causative factor
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Scale and speed of flows

     2. What is emphasized as a critical element for globalisation in the passage?
  • (a) Historical basis
  • (b) Improved communications
  • (c) Technology
  • (d) Novelty of flows
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Technology

     3. Which technological inventions are mentioned as revolutionizing communication?
  • (a) Telegraph, telephone, and microchip
  • (b) Printing press
  • (c) Telecommunication towers
  • (d) Radio and television
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Telegraph, telephone, and microchip

     4. What laid the basis for the creation of nationalism in the historical context?
  • (a) Improved communications
  • (b) Printing press
  • (c) Globalisation
  • (d) Technology
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Printing press

     5. What is stated as a critical factor for the movement of ideas, capital, commodities, and people?
  • (a) National boundaries
  • (b) Technology
  • (c) Historical basis
  • (d) Collective thinking
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Technology

     6. According to the passage, what does globalisation not emerge merely from?
  • (a) Improved communications
  • (b) Historical basis
  • (c) Technology
  • (d) Nationalism
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Improved communications

     7. What is highlighted as important for people to recognize in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Novelty of flows
  • (b) Historical basis
  • (c) Scale and speed of flows
  • (d) Interconnections with the rest of the world
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Interconnections with the rest of the world

     8. What is mentioned as an example of events not confined to any particular nation in the passage?
  • (a) Economic events
  • (b) Bird flu and tsunami
  • (c) Major technological advancements
  • (d) Improved communications
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Bird flu and tsunami

     9. What is suggested to be felt at the global level when major economic events take place?
  • (a) Improved communications
  • (b) Novelty of flows
  • (c) Scale and speed of flows
  • (d) Impact outside immediate local, national, or regional environment
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Impact outside immediate local, national, or regional environment

     10. What factor is mentioned as making the movement of capital and commodities quicker and wider than the movement of people?
  • (a) National boundaries
  • (b) Novelty of flows
  • (c) Technology
  • (d) Historical basis
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Technology

     1. How does globalisation impact traditional conceptions of state sovereignty?
  • (a) Enhances state capacity
  • (b) Diminishes state capacity
  • (c) Eliminates the state
  • (d) Reduces global tensions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Diminishes state capacity

     2. What is identified as the prime determinant of economic and social priorities in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) State capacity
  • (b) Multinational companies
  • (c) Old welfare functions
  • (d) Market
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Market

     3. What happens to the old ‘welfare state’ in the era of globalisation?
  • (a) It expands its functions
  • (b) It becomes more minimalist
  • (c) It withdraws from law and order
  • (d) It merges with multinational companies
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It becomes more minimalist

     4. What continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community according to the passage?
  • (a) International organizations
  • (b) Multinational companies
  • (c) State
  • (d) Market
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) State

     5. In what way does globalisation affect the decision-making capacity of governments?
  • (a) Enhances their capacity
  • (b) Doesn’t impact decision-making
  • (c) Reduces their capacity
  • (d) Eliminates decision-making
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Reduces their capacity

     6. What has received a boost in state capacity as a consequence of globalisation?
  • (a) Economic functions
  • (b) Technological advances
  • (c) Social well-being
  • (d) Information collection technologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Information collection technologies

     7. What is stated as the essential functions of the state in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Economic and social functions
  • (b) International relations
  • (c) Law and order, national security
  • (d) Market regulation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Law and order, national security

     8. What remains an important factor in world politics, despite globalisation?
  • (a) Global organizations
  • (b) Multinational companies
  • (c) State rivalries and jealousies
  • (d) International treaties
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) State rivalries and jealousies

     1. What dimension largely shapes contemporary debates surrounding globalisation?
  • (a) Political dimension
  • (b) Cultural dimension
  • (c) Economic dimension
  • (d) Social dimension
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic dimension

     2. What role do international institutions like the IMF and WTO play in economic globalisation?
  • (a) Determining social policies
  • (b) Shaping cultural practices
  • (c) Influencing economic policies
  • (d) Establishing political alliances
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Influencing economic policies

     3. In addition to international institutions, who are the other actors in economic globalisation?
  • (a) Only powerful countries
  • (b) Governments only
  • (c) Broader set of actors
  • (d) Local communities only
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Broader set of actors

     4. What is a broader way of understanding economic globalisation?
  • (a) Focusing on international institutions
  • (b) Examining local economies
  • (c) Looking at the distribution of economic gains
  • (d) Ignoring economic flows
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Looking at the distribution of economic gains

     5. What are some forms of economic flows in globalisation mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Political flows
  • (b) Social flows
  • (c) Cultural flows
  • (d) Commodities, capital, people, and ideas
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Commodities, capital, people, and ideas

     6. What has globalisation led to in terms of trade in commodities?
  • (a) Increased restrictions
  • (b) No change
  • (c) Reduced restrictions
  • (d) Limited to developed countries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Reduced restrictions

     7. How has globalisation affected the movement of capital?
  • (a) Increased restrictions
  • (b) No change
  • (c) Reduced restrictions
  • (d) Limited to developing countries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Reduced restrictions

     8. What is an example of the flow of ideas mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Spread of nationalism
  • (b) Spread of internet and computer services
  • (c) Spread of traditional practices
  • (d) Spread of political ideologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Spread of internet and computer services

     9. What has not increased to the same degree in terms of movement across the globe?
  • (a) Capital
  • (b) Commodities
  • (c) People
  • (d) Ideas
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) People

     10. How have developed countries guarded their borders in the context of globalisation?
  • (a) Increased visa policies
  • (b) Eliminated visa policies
  • (c) Welcomed foreign workers
  • (d) Ignored visa policies
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Increased visa policies

     11. What is the focus of the passage concerning economic globalisation?
  • (a) Local economies
  • (b) International institutions
  • (c) Distribution of economic gains
  • (d) Cultural practices
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Distribution of economic gains

     12. What role do international institutions play in determining economic policies?
  • (a) Minimal role
  • (b) No role
  • (c) Primary role
  • (d) Negative role
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Primary role

     13. What aspect of economic globalisation involves looking at who gains the most?
  • (a) Political gains
  • (b) Cultural gains
  • (c) Economic gains
  • (d) Social gains
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic gains

     14. What has led to the reduction of restrictions on the movement of commodities across the globe?
  • (a) International conflicts
  • (b) Increased restrictions
  • (c) Economic globalisation
  • (d) Local economies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic globalisation

     15. Which aspect of the movement across the globe has not increased to the same degree?
  • (a) Commodities
  • (b) Capital
  • (c) People
  • (d) Ideas
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) People

     1. What is emphasized as crucial in understanding the consequences of globalisation?
  • (a) Economic policies
  • (b) Government role
  • (c) Specific context
  • (d) Generalizations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Specific context

     2. What has similar economic policies in different parts of the world generated?
  • (a) Similar outcomes
  • (b) Vastly different outcomes
  • (c) Economic equality
  • (d) Political stability
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Vastly different outcomes

     3. What is the concern of those worried about social justice in the context of economic globalisation?
  • (a) State withdrawal
  • (b) Economic growth
  • (c) Institutional safeguards
  • (d) Population increase
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) State withdrawal

     4. What have movements called for concerning economic globalisation?
  • (a) Expansion
  • (b) Halt
  • (c) Modification
  • (d) Promotion
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Halt

     5. How have some economists described economic globalisation?
  • (a) Reformation
  • (b) Recolonisation
  • (c) Revolution
  • (d) Redistribution
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Recolonisation

     6. What do advocates of economic globalisation argue about its impact on economic growth?
  • (a) Hindrance
  • (b) Inevitable
  • (c) Limited
  • (d) Unpredictable
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Inevitable

     7. What is the focus of more moderate supporters of globalisation?
  • (a) Uncritical acceptance
  • (b) Intelligent response
  • (c) Economic ruin
  • (d) Forced globalisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Intelligent response

     8. What is undeniable concerning inter-dependence and integration due to globalisation?
  • (a) Reduced momentum
  • (b) Increased momentum
  • (c) Stagnation
  • (d) Isolation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Increased momentum

     9. What is the primary concern of those worried about social justice?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) State withdrawal
  • (c) Political stability
  • (d) Population increase
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) State withdrawal

     10. What do those advocating for social safety nets aim to minimize?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Negative effects of globalisation
  • (c) Population increase
  • (d) Political stability
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Negative effects of globalisation

     11. What do advocates of economic globalisation argue about its inevitability?
  • (a) Uncertain
  • (b) Unwise
  • (c) Unpredictable
  • (d) Inevitable
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Inevitable

     12. What is the primary concern of advocates of economic globalisation?
  • (a) Uncritical acceptance
  • (b) Economic growth
  • (c) Inevitability
  • (d) Forced globalisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic growth

     1. What is the scope of the consequences of globalisation?
  • (a) Politics and economy
  • (b) Home, food, drink, wear, and thought
  • (c) Political ideologies
  • (d) Scientific advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Home, food, drink, wear, and thought

     2. What is the fear associated with the cultural effect of globalisation?
  • (a) Cultural diversification
  • (b) Cultural homogenisation
  • (c) Cultural isolation
  • (d) Cultural imperialism
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural homogenisation

     3. What does the rise of a uniform culture lead to, according to the text?
  • (a) Global culture
  • (b) Cultural imperialism
  • (c) Cultural diversification
  • (d) Cultural homogenisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Cultural homogenisation

     4. What is referred to as the soft power of US hegemony?
  • (a) Cultural heterogenisation
  • (b) Cultural imperialism
  • (c) Cultural diversification
  • (d) Cultural homogenisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural imperialism

     5. What does the text argue about the cultural consequences of globalisation?
  • (a) Only negative
  • (b) Only positive
  • (c) Both negative and positive
  • (d) None of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Both negative and positive

     6. What is the phenomenon referred to as the ‘McDonaldisation’ of the world?
  • (a) Spread of American education
  • (b) Homogenisation of cultural practices
  • (c) Globalisation of food choices
  • (d) Promotion of cultural diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Globalisation of food choices

     7. What does the text mention about the burger in comparison to a masala dosa?
  • (a) Substitute for masala dosa
  • (b) Poses a real challenge
  • (c) No real challenge
  • (d) Duplicates the masala dosa
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) No real challenge

     8. What is created when external influences modify culture without overwhelming the traditional?
  • (a) Cultural imperialism
  • (b) Cultural diversification
  • (c) Cultural isolation
  • (d) Cultural homogenisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural diversification

     9. What is the opposite effect of cultural homogenisation?
  • (a) Cultural imperialism
  • (b) Cultural diversification
  • (c) Cultural isolation
  • (d) Cultural assimilation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural diversification

     10. What does the text suggest about cultural exchange?
  • (a) One-way interaction
  • (b) Rarely one way
  • (c) Exclusive to developed nations
  • (d) Limited to specific regions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Rarely one way

     11. What term is used to describe the opposite effect of cultural homogenisation?
  • (a) Cultural assimilation
  • (b) Cultural heterogenisation
  • (c) Cultural imperialism
  • (d) Cultural isolation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Cultural heterogenisation

     12. What is described as the ‘soft power of US hegemony’?
  • (a) Influence through military strength
  • (b) Influence through cultural dominance
  • (c) Influence through economic control
  • (d) Influence through political alliances
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Influence through cultural dominance

     13. What do advocates of economic globalisation argue regarding its impact?
  • (a) It leads to recolonisation
  • (b) It benefits only the economically weak
  • (c) It generates economic growth and well-being
  • (d) It is wise to resist its march
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It generates economic growth and well-being

     14. What is suggested by more moderate supporters of globalisation?
  • (a) Globalisation should be resisted
  • (b) It provides a challenge to be accepted uncritically
  • (c) It cannot be responded to intelligently
  • (d) It provides a challenge that can be responded to intelligently
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) It provides a challenge that can be responded to intelligently

     15. What is mentioned about the increased momentum resulting from globalisation?
  • (a) It leads to cultural isolation
  • (b) It promotes cultural assimilation
  • (c) It leads to interdependence and integration
  • (d) It creates cultural boundaries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It leads to interdependence and integration

     16. What is crucial to consider when thinking about the consequences of globalisation?
  • (a) Generalisations
  • (b) Specific context
  • (c) Political affiliations
  • (d) Economic ideologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Specific context

     1. What does the text state about the occurrence of globalisation in earlier periods?
  • (a) It only happened in recent history
  • (b) It occurred in different parts of the world in earlier periods
  • (c) It is a modern phenomenon
  • (d) It started with India’s independence
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It occurred in different parts of the world in earlier periods

     2. What flows are mentioned as occurring in Indian history for several centuries?
  • (a) Only the movement of commodities
  • (b) Movement of capital and people
  • (c) Movement of ideas and people
  • (d) Movement of capital, commodities, ideas, and people
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Movement of capital, commodities, ideas, and people

     3. What role did India play during the colonial period in terms of trade?
  • (a) Importer of primary goods
  • (b) Exporter of finished goods
  • (c) Exporter of primary goods and raw materials
  • (d) Importer of raw materials
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Exporter of primary goods and raw materials

     4. What decision did India make after gaining independence?
  • (a) Rely on others for finished goods
  • (b) Continue relying on Britain for goods
  • (c) Make things ourselves
  • (d) Allow unrestricted imports
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Make things ourselves

     5. What term is used to describe the policy of not allowing others to export to India?
  • (a) Globalisation
  • (b) Deregulation
  • (c) Protectionism
  • (d) Colonisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Protectionism

     6. What problem is associated with protectionism in the text?
  • (a) High rates of economic growth
  • (b) Lack of attention to critical sectors
  • (c) Successful economic reforms
  • (d) Enhanced global trade
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Lack of attention to critical sectors

     7. In 1991, why did India embark on a programme of economic reforms?
  • (a) Desire for higher rates of economic growth
  • (b) Satisfaction with the existing economic conditions
  • (c) Fear of globalisation
  • (d) Lack of financial crisis
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Desire for higher rates of economic growth

     8. What sectors were de -regulated in India’s economic reforms?
  • (a) Only health
  • (b) Only housing
  • (c) Trade and foreign investment
  • (d) Only primary education
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Trade and foreign investment

     9. What is mentioned as the ultimate test of economic reforms?
  • (a) High growth rates
  • (b) Shared benefits of growth
  • (c) Financial crisis
  • (d) De-regulation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Shared benefits of growth

     10. What does the text emphasize regarding the benefits of economic growth?
  • (a) High growth rates are sufficient
  • (b) Everyone should be worse off
  • (c) Benefits should be shared
  • (d) Economic growth is undesirable
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Benefits should be shared

     1. What is the main concern of critics on the left regarding globalisation?
  • (a) Empowerment of the state
  • (b) Enrichment of the poor
  • (c) Enrichment of the rich
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Enrichment of the rich

     2. What do critics on the political right fear about globalisation in economic terms?
  • (a) Self-reliance
  • (b) Protectionism
  • (c) Economic liberalism
  • (d) State empowerment
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic liberalism

     3. What is the common cultural concern shared by critics from both left and right?
  • (a) Cultural homogenisation
  • (b) Preservation of age-old values
  • (c) Western cultural dominance
  • (d) Cultural diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Western cultural dominance

     4. What do anti-globalisation movements oppose?
  • (a) The concept of globalisation
  • (b) A specific programme of globalisation
  • (c) Western cultural influence
  • (d) State empowerment
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) A specific programme of globalisation

     5. In 1999, what sparked protests at the World Trade Organisation (WTO) Ministerial Meeting in Seattle?
  • (a) Approval of fair trading practices
  • (b) Alleged unfair trading practices by economically powerful states
  • (c) Celebration of globalisation
  • (d) Environmental concerns
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Alleged unfair trading practices by economically powerful states

     6. What does the World Social Forum (WSF) bring together?
  • (a) Economists and policymakers
  • (b) Representatives from economically powerful states
  • (c) A coalition opposed to neo-liberal globalisation
  • (d) Supporters of economic liberalism
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) A coalition opposed to neo-liberal globalisation

     7. Where was the first World Social Forum (WSF) meeting organized?
  • (a) Seattle
  • (b) Porto Alegre, Brazil
  • (c) Mumbai
  • (d) Brazil in March 2018
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Porto Alegre, Brazil

     8. Where was the fourth World Social Forum (WSF) meeting held?
  • (a) Seattle
  • (b) Porto Alegre, Brazil
  • (c) Mumbai
  • (d) Brazil in March 2018
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Mumbai

     9. When was the latest World Social Forum (WSF) meeting held?
  • (a) Seattle
  • (b) Porto Alegre, Brazil
  • (c) Mumbai
  • (d) Brazil in March 2018
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Brazil in March 2018

     10. What do critics on the left believe globalisation represents?
  • (a) A phase of global socialism
  • (b) A phase of global capitalism
  • (c) A phase of cultural integration
  • (d) A phase of political isolation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) A phase of global capitalism

     11. What is the primary concern of critics from the political right regarding globalisation?
  • (a) Cultural preservation
  • (b) Economic empowerment of the state
  • (c) Political stability
  • (d) Environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Cultural preservation

     12. What common concern is shared by critics from both the left and right in political terms?
  • (a) Empowerment of the state
  • (b) Weakening of the state
  • (c) Political stability
  • (d) Economic self-reliance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Weakening of the state

     13. What was alleged at the World Trade Organisation (WTO) Ministerial Meeting in 1999?
  • (a) Celebration of fair trading practices
  • (b) Alleged unfair trading practices by economically powerful states
  • (c) Advancement of the developing world
  • (d) Environmental protection measures
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Alleged unfair trading practices by economically powerful states

     14. What do critics on the political right want in economic terms?
  • (a) Economic liberalism
  • (b) Cultural diversity
  • (c) Economic self-reliance and protectionism
  • (d) State empowerment
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Economic self-reliance and protectionism

     15. What do critics on the left argue about the weakening of the state?
  • (a) It leads to cultural preservation
  • (b) It benefits the poor
  • (c) It benefits the rich
  • (d) It reduces the capacity to protect the interests of the poor
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) It reduces the capacity to protect the interests of the poor

     1. What has been the focus of resistance to globalisation in India?
  • (a) Cultural influences
  • (b) Economic liberalisation
  • (c) Industrial workforce
  • (d) Neem patenting
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic liberalisation

     2. Which of the following has been a form of resistance from the political right in India?
  • (a) Industrial strikes
  • (b) Celebration of Valentine’s Day
  • (c) Trade unions
  • (d) Farmer protests
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Celebration of Valentine’s Day

     3. What role do social movements play in resisting globalisation?
  • (a) Creating economic policies
  • (b) Opposing political parties
  • (c) Making sense of the world and dealing with concerns
  • (d) Promoting cultural influences
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Making sense of the world and dealing with concerns

     4. What kind of protests have been organized against the entry of multinationals in India?
  • (a) Cultural protests
  • (b) Industrial strikes
  • (c) Left-wing protests
  • (d) Farmer protests
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Left-wing protests

     5. What specific opposition has been faced regarding the patenting of certain plants like Neem?
  • (a) Political opposition
  • (b) Industrial workforce opposition
  • (c) Farmer protests
  • (d) Cultural influences
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Farmer protests

     6. Which forum has voiced protests against economic liberalisation in India?
  • (a) Indian Social Forum
  • (b) World Trade Organisation
  • (c) Indian Political Parties
  • (d) United Nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Indian Social Forum

     7. What kind of movements have objected to the westernization of the dress tastes of girl students in schools and colleges?
  • (a) Cultural movements
  • (b) Industrial movements
  • (c) Right-wing movements
  • (d) Trade unions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Right-wing movements

     8. What has generated considerable opposition in India regarding the patenting of certain plants like Neem?
  • (a) Cultural influences
  • (b) Trade unions
  • (c) Farmer protests
  • (d) American and European firms
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) American and European firms

     1. What insight can working in a call centre provide?
  • (a) Insight into global politics
  • (b) Insight into American culture
  • (c) Insight into Indian traditions
  • (d) Insight into European customs
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Insight into American culture

     2. What type of callers can one encounter while working in a call centre?
  • (a) Polite and friendly callers
  • (b) Only American callers
  • (c) Irate and abusive callers
  • (d) Exclusively South African callers
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Irate and abusive callers

     3. What stress factor is mentioned in handling calls from Americans?
  • (a) Language barrier
  • (b) Time zone differences
  • (c) Exhibited hatred in callers’ tone
  • (d) Cultural misunderstandings
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Exhibited hatred in callers’ tone

     4. How do some Americans perceive Indians in the context of job denial?
  • (a) As potential colleagues
  • (b) As job competitors
  • (c) As cultural ambassadors
  • (d) As job facilitators
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) As job competitors

     5. How might an American caller react upon learning that their call has been routed to India?
  • (a) Expressing joy
  • (b) Being indifferent
  • (c) Exhibiting hatred
  • (d) Showing surprise
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Exhibiting hatred

     6. What is mentioned as challenging in responding to certain calls in the context of working in a call centre?
  • (a) Language proficiency
  • (b) Identifying nationalities
  • (c) Finding the right response
  • (d) Handling technical issues
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Finding the right response

     1. What is the primary objective of the activity described?
  • (a) To list favorite TV programs
  • (b) To identify exclusive Indian companies
  • (c) To understand the impact of globalisation
  • (d) To promote small-scale industries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To understand the impact of globalisation

     2. What do students list in the activity as part of understanding globalisation?
  • (a) Favorite TV programs
  • (b) Manufacturers of everyday products
  • (c) Names of exclusive foreign companies
  • (d) List of luxuries
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Manufacturers of everyday products

     3. How does the teacher classify the collected information from students?
  • (a) Based on product popularity
  • (b) Into three categories: exclusive foreign, exclusive Indian, and collaborative companies
  • (c) By dividing it into food and non-food items
  • (d) Based on student preferences
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Into three categories: exclusive foreign, exclusive Indian, and collaborative companies

     4. What is the teacher’s focus during the debriefing session?
  • (a) Promoting small-scale industries
  • (b) The impact of foreign goods on daily life
  • (c) Introduction to ongoing debates
  • (d) The all-inclusive nature of globalisation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The impact of foreign goods on daily life

     5. According to the activity, what happens to small-scale industries as the use of foreign goods increases?
  • (a) They gain more customers
  • (b) They face no impact
  • (c) They experience a decline
  • (d) They expand their production
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) They experience a decline

     6. What is introduced to students during the conclusion of the activity?
  • (a) Cultural diversity
  • (b) Global debates
  • (c) Exclusive Indian companies
  • (d) Ongoing political issues
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Global debates

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    ]]>         Class 12 Ch. 6 Environment and Natural Resources MCQ https://notesjobs.in/class-12-ch-6-environment-and-natural-resources-mcq/ Sun, 07 Jan 2024 05:56:25 +0000 https://notesjobs.in/?p=14545 Class 12 Ch. 6 Environment and Natural Resources MCQ 1. What is the focus of the chapter? (a) Economic issues in world politics (b) Social movements in the 1960s (c) Environmental and resource issues in world politics (d) Geopolitics of resource competition Answer Answer: (c) Environmental and resource issues in world politics 2. What event ... Read more

    The post Class 12 Ch. 6 Environment and Natural Resources MCQ appeared first on .

    ]]>     Class 12 Ch. 6 Environment and Natural Resources MCQ

    1. What is the focus of the chapter?
  • (a) Economic issues in world politics
  • (b) Social movements in the 1960s
  • (c) Environmental and resource issues in world politics
  • (d) Geopolitics of resource competition
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Environmental and resource issues in world politics

     2. What event in 1992 brought environmental issues to the centre-stage of global politics?
  • (a) World Economic Forum
  • (b) United Nations General Assembly
  • (c) Earth Summit
  • (d) G8 Summit
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Earth Summit

     3. What does the chapter analyze in a comparative perspective?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Social movements
  • (c) Environmental movements
  • (d) Political ideologies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Environmental movements

     4. What is briefly discussed in the chapter regarding India’s stand?
  • (a) Economic policies
  • (b) Environmental debates
  • (c) Social movements
  • (d) Political conflicts
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Environmental debates

     5. What is assessed in relation to notions of common property resources and global commons?
  • (a) Economic inequality
  • (b) Political stability
  • (c) Social justice
  • (d) Environmental issues
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Environmental issues

     1. What event brought environmental issues to the centre-stage of global politics?
  • (a) Kyoto Protocol
  • (b) Earth Summit 1992
  • (c) Paris Agreement
  • (d) Copenhagen Summit
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Earth Summit 1992

     2. According to the Human Development Report 2016, what is the impact of the lack of safe water and sanitation in developing countries?
  • (a) Increase in crop yield
  • (b) Improved child health
  • (c) Death of over three million children annually
  • (d) Enhanced biodiversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Death of over three million children annually

     3. What poses a real danger to ecosystems and human health, according to the text?
  • (a) Coastal pollution
  • (b) Depletion of cultivable area
  • (c) Decline in the total amount of ozone
  • (d) Overgrazing of grasslands
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Decline in the total amount of ozone

     4. What is described as a result of the extensive depletion and pollution of water bodies?
  • (a) Increase in food production
  • (b) Improvement in marine environment
  • (c) Restriction of food production
  • (d) Stabilization of climate
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Restriction of food production

     5. What is being cut down, leading to the loss of biodiversity?
  • (a) Fisheries
  • (b) Grasslands
  • (c) Natural forests
  • (d) Cultivable areas
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Natural forests

     6. What is the real danger posed by the decline in the total amount of ozone?
  • (a) Increased greenhouse gas emissions
  • (b) Destruction of habitat
  • (c) Threat to ecosystems and human health
  • (d) Rise in sea levels
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Threat to ecosystems and human health

     7. What is causing coastal pollution according to the text?
  • (a) Intensive human settlement
  • (b) Open sea pollution
  • (c) Overharvesting of fisheries
  • (d) Depletion of ozone
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Intensive human settlement

     8. According to the Human Development Report 2016, how many people in developing countries lack access to sanitation?
  • (a) 663 million
  • (b) 2.4 billion
  • (c) 3 million
  • (d) 55 million
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 2.4 billion

     1. Why do environmental issues become part of ‘world politics’?
  • (a) Due to geographical significance
  • (b) Because they are studied in geography
  • (c) Single governments can address them fully
  • (d) They have political consequences and require global cooperation
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) They have political consequences and require global cooperation

     2. What does the Club of Rome’s book ‘Limits to Growth’ dramatize?
  • (a) Rapid economic growth
  • (b) World population growth
  • (c) Depletion of the Earth’s resources
  • (d) Environmental consequences of economic growth
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Depletion of the Earth’s resources

     3. When did the environmental consequences of economic growth acquire a political character?
  • (a) 1950s
  • (b) 1960s
  • (c) 1972
  • (d) 1980s
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1960s

     4. Which global think tank published the book ‘Limits to Growth’?
  • (a) United Nations
  • (b) World Bank
  • (c) Club of Rome
  • (d) World Health Organization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Club of Rome

     5. What role did the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) play in response to environmental problems?
  • (a) Holding international conferences
  • (b) Promoting detailed studies
  • (c) Coordinating global responses
  • (d) All of the above
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) All of the above

     6. What emerged as a significant issue of global politics from the 1960s onwards?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Social justice
  • (c) Environment
  • (d) Human rights
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Environment

     1. When and where was the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held?
  • (a) 1987, New York
  • (b) 1992, Rio de Janeiro
  • (c) 2000, Geneva
  • (d) 1995, Kyoto
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 1992, Rio de Janeiro

     2. What is another name for the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development?
  • (a) World Summit
  • (b) Earth Summit
  • (c) Global Conference
  • (d) Nature Summit
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Earth Summit

     3. How many states attended the Rio Summit?
  • (a) 100
  • (b) 150
  • (c) 170
  • (d) 200
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 170

     4. What report, published in 1987, warned about the unsustainability of traditional economic growth?
  • (a) Kyoto Report
  • (b) Earth Report
  • (c) Brundtland Report
  • (d) Rio Report
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Brundtland Report

     5. What were the concerns of the ‘global North’ at the Rio Summit?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Ozone depletion and global warming
  • (c) Sustainable development
  • (d) Ecological conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Ozone depletion and global warming

     6. What did the Rio Summit recommend in terms of development practices?
  • (a) Sustainable growth
  • (b) Development 21
  • (c) Agenda 21
  • (d) Economic prosperity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Agenda 21

     7. What is the approach to development commonly known as?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Green development
  • (c) Sustainable development
  • (d) Agenda development
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sustainable development

     8. What did some critics argue about Agenda 21?
  • (a) It was biased in favor of economic growth
  • (b) It favored ecological conservation
  • (c) It lacked global cooperation
  • (d) It was too ambitious
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) It was biased in favor of economic growth

     9. What term is used for the rich and developed countries in the context of environmental politics?
  • (a) Global South
  • (b) Developing nations
  • (c) G8 nations
  • (d) Global North
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Global North

     10. What was the main issue left unresolved at the Rio Summit?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Climate change
  • (c) Differences and difficulties
  • (d) Biodiversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Differences and difficulties

     1. What are resources that are not owned by anyone but shared by a community called?
  • (a) Sovereign resources
  • (b) Collective resources
  • (c) Communal resources
  • (d) Commons
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Commons

     2. What are areas or regions outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any state called?
  • (a) Independent zones
  • (b) Shared territories
  • (c) Global commons
  • (d) International territories
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Global commons

     3. Which of the following is considered a global commons?
  • (a) National parks
  • (b) Community centres
  • (c) The earth’s atmosphere
  • (d) Sovereign territories
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The earth’s atmosphere

     4. What treaty, signed in 1959, deals with the governance of Antarctica?
  • (a) Arctic Treaty
  • (b) Antarctic Protocol
  • (c) Antarctic Treaty
  • (d) Polar Agreement
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Antarctic Treaty

     5. Which protocol, from 1987, addresses issues related to ozone depletion?
  • (a) Antarctic Environmental Protocol
  • (b) Kyoto Protocol
  • (c) Montreal Protocol
  • (d) Environmental Conservation Protocol
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Montreal Protocol

     6. What does the history of outer space as a global commons reveal?
  • (a) Equal benefits for all nations
  • (b) North-South inequalities
  • (c) Exclusive access for developed nations
  • (d) Universal cooperation
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) North-South inequalities

     7. What is the crucial issue influencing the management of global commons?
  • (a) Political ideologies
  • (b) Economic systems
  • (c) Technology and industrial development
  • (d) Cultural diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Technology and industrial development

     8. What was revealed by the discovery of the ozone hole over the Antarctic in the mid-1980s?
  • (a) The dangers of global warming
  • (b) The opportunities of international cooperation
  • (c) The difficulty of achieving consensus
  • (d) The effectiveness of environmental protocols
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The opportunities of international cooperation

     9. What term is commonly used for the benefits of exploitative activities in outer space?
  • (a) Global access
  • (b) Universal benefits
  • (c) Equal distribution
  • (d) Far from being equal
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Far from being equal

     10. What approach to development is commonly known as per the passage?
  • (a) Ecological conservation
  • (b) Economic growth
  • (c) Sustainable development
  • (d) Exploitative development
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Sustainable development

     1. What is the key difference in the approach to the environment between the countries of the North and the South?
  • (a) North wants equal responsibility, South wants differentiated responsibilities
  • (b) North wants no responsibility, South wants equal responsibilities
  • (c) Both North and South want equal responsibilities
  • (d) Both North and South want no responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) North wants equal responsibility, South wants differentiated responsibilities

     2. What do the developed countries of the North want in terms of environmental responsibilities?
  • (a) No responsibilities
  • (b) Equal responsibilities
  • (c) Differentiated responsibilities
  • (d) Shared responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Equal responsibilities

     3. What is the argument of the developing countries regarding ecological degradation?
  • (a) They are not responsible
  • (b) Developed countries should undo the damage
  • (c) They should industrialize without restrictions
  • (d) All countries have equal responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Developed countries should undo the damage

     4. What principle was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the Earth Summit in 1992?
  • (a) Equal Responsibilities Principle
  • (b) Global Partnership Principle
  • (c) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities Principle
  • (d) Sustainable Development Principle
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities Principle

     5. According to the Rio Declaration, what responsibilities do developed countries acknowledge?
  • (a) No responsibilities
  • (b) Equal responsibilities
  • (c) Differentiated responsibilities
  • (d) Shared responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Differentiated responsibilities

     6. What does the Rio Declaration state about the different contributions to global environmental degradation?
  • (a) It emphasizes equal contributions
  • (b) It acknowledges differentiated contributions
  • (c) It ignores contributions
  • (d) It criticizes contributions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It acknowledges differentiated contributions

     7. What do the developing countries believe should be taken into account in international environmental law?
  • (a) Only the contributions of developed countries
  • (b) The special needs of developing countries
  • (c) Only the responsibilities of developed countries
  • (d) No considerations are needed
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The special needs of developing countries

     8. What term is used for the principle accepted in the Rio Declaration?
  • (a) Differentiated Sustainability
  • (b) Common Responsibility
  • (c) Sustainable Partnership
  • (d) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities

     9. What does the Rio Declaration state about developed countries’ acknowledgment?
  • (a) Acknowledgment is not required
  • (b) Acknowledgment is for their economic growth only
  • (c) Acknowledgment of their responsibility
  • (d) Acknowledgment is not mentioned
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Acknowledgment of their responsibility

     10. What does the Rio Declaration emphasize regarding global partnership?
  • (a) It rejects global partnership
  • (b) It calls for equal partnership
  • (c) It encourages global partnership
  • (d) It ignores global partnership
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It encourages global partnership

     11. According to the passage, what is the South’s view on restrictions during industrialization?
  • (a) No restrictions should be applied
  • (b) Same restrictions as the North
  • (c) Differentiated restrictions
  • (d) Stronger restrictions than the North
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Differentiated restrictions

     12. What responsibility do developed countries acknowledge in the pursuit of sustainable development?
  • (a) No responsibility
  • (b) Equal responsibility
  • (c) Limited responsibility
  • (d) Differentiated responsibility
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Differentiated responsibility

     1. What is the primary focus of the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?
  • (a) Historical events
  • (b) Greenhouse gas emissions
  • (c) Industrial development
  • (d) Developing countries’ contributions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Greenhouse gas emissions

     2. According to the UNFCCC, how should parties act to protect the climate system?
  • (a) On the basis of equality
  • (b) Without considering responsibilities
  • (c) On the basis of equity and differentiated responsibilities
  • (d) According to the Kyoto Protocol
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) On the basis of equity and differentiated responsibilities

     3. Which gases are considered responsible for global warming in the Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) Oxygen and Nitrogen
  • (b) Hydrogen and Carbon
  • (c) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydrofluoro carbons, etc.
  • (d) Sulfur and Nitrous oxide
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydrofluoro carbons, etc.

     4. Why were China, India, and other developing countries exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) They have low per capita emissions
  • (b) They are not part of the UNFCCC
  • (c) They are not affected by global warming
  • (d) They are responsible for most emissions
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) They have low per capita emissions

     5. What is the Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) A historical treaty
  • (b) A protocol for economic growth
  • (c) An international agreement on greenhouse gas emissions
  • (d) A protocol for ocean protection
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) An international agreement on greenhouse gas emissions

     6. Where was the Kyoto Protocol agreed upon in 1997?
  • (a) Paris
  • (b) Geneva
  • (c) Kyoto, Japan
  • (d) New York
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Kyoto, Japan

     7. What did the parties to the UNFCCC acknowledge about the historical and current global emissions of greenhouse gases?
  • (a) They originate primarily from developing countries
  • (b) They have no impact on climate change
  • (c) They originate primarily from developed countries
  • (d) They are unrelated to climate issues
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) They originate primarily from developed countries

     8. What guiding principle does the UNFCCC emphasize for climate protection?
  • (a) Equal responsibilities for all parties
  • (b) Differentiated responsibilities based on capabilities
  • (c) No responsibilities
  • (d) Kyoto Protocol compliance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Differentiated responsibilities based on capabilities

     1. What does common property represent in the context of the group?
  • (a) Privately owned resources
  • (b) Government-owned resources
  • (c) Resources shared by the group
  • (d) Unused natural resources
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Resources shared by the group

     2. What is the underlying norm regarding common property in the given context?
  • (a) Exclusive ownership
  • (b) No rights or duties
  • (c) Members have both rights and duties
  • (d) State ownership
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Members have both rights and duties

     3. What factors have contributed to the dwindling of common property in many parts of the world?
  • (a) Privatisation, agricultural intensification, population growth, and ecosystem degradation
  • (b) Government intervention
  • (c) Technological advancements
  • (d) Climate change
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Privatisation, agricultural intensification, population growth, and ecosystem degradation

     4. What institutional arrangement appropriately fits the description of a common property regime in the given context?
  • (a) Privatisation
  • (b) Government management
  • (c) Traditional management of sacred groves
  • (d) Individual ownership
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Traditional management of sacred groves

     5. Where have sacred groves been traditionally managed by village communities?
  • (a) North America
  • (b) Europe
  • (c) South India
  • (d) Australia
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) South India

     1. When did India sign and ratify the 1997 Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) 1997
  • (b) 2002
  • (c) 2005
  • (d) 2008
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 2002

     2. Which countries were exempt from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) Developed countries
  • (b) Developing countries, including India and China
  • (c) All countries
  • (d) European countries
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Developing countries, including India and China

     3. What do critics of the Kyoto Protocol point out?
  • (a) It is too strict
  • (b) It is ineffective
  • (c) Developing countries will become leading contributors to greenhouse gas emissions
  • (d) It favors developed countries
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Developing countries will become leading contributors to greenhouse gas emissions

     4. What did India point out at the G-8 meeting in June 2005?
  • (a) Developed countries should contribute more to emission reduction
  • (b) Developing countries should take more responsibility
  • (c) Per capita emission rates in developing countries are significantly higher
  • (d) Developing countries are not bound by emission reduction targets
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Per capita emission rates in developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world

     5. According to the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities, who does India believe has the major responsibility of curbing emissions?
  • (a) Developed countries
  • (b) Developing countries
  • (c) Both developed and developing countries
  • (d) United Nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) Developed countries

     6. What is the primary concern of India regarding greenhouse gas emissions?
  • (a) India wants to increase its emissions
  • (b) India believes it is not contributing to emissions
  • (c) India is concerned about the per capita emission rates in developing countries
  • (d) India wants strict emission reduction targets
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) India is concerned about the per capita emission rates in developing countries

     7. What was the main goal of the Kyoto Protocol?
  • (a) Promoting economic growth
  • (b) Halting industrial development
  • (c) Setting targets for industrialized countries to cut greenhouse gas emissions
  • (d) Encouraging deforestation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Setting targets for industrialized countries to cut greenhouse gas emissions

     8. What does the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities emphasize?
  • (a) Equal responsibility for all countries
  • (b) Differentiated responsibilities based on historical contributions
  • (c) Developing countries are exempt from responsibilities
  • (d) No responsibilities for developing countries
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Differentiated responsibilities based on historical contributions

     1. What is the primary basis of India’s international negotiating position in climate change discussions?
  • (a) Economic growth
  • (b) Historical responsibility
  • (c) Per capita emissions
  • (d) Recent industrialization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Historical responsibility

     2. What does UNFCCC stand for?
  • (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
  • (b) United Nations Convention on Environmental Protection
  • (c) Universal Negotiation Forum for Carbon Control
  • (d) Union of Nations Fighting for Clean Climate
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

     3. What is India’s stance on introducing binding commitments for rapidly industrializing countries?
  • (a) India supports it
  • (b) India opposes it
  • (c) India is neutral
  • (d) India is undecided
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) India opposes it

     4. According to India, what is likely to be the representation of its per capita carbon emissions by 2030?
  • (a) Equal to the world average
  • (b) More than the world average
  • (c) Less than half the world average in 2000
  • (d) Significantly higher than the world average
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Less than half the world average in 2000

     5. When did India ratify the Paris Climate Agreement?
  • (a) 2001
  • (b) 2016
  • (c) 1997
  • (d) 2012
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 2016

     6. What is one of the largest renewable energy programs in the world?
  • (a) Global Green Energy Initiative
  • (b) International Renewable Power Campaign
  • (c) India’s National Mission on Biodiesel
  • (d) United Nations Renewable Energy Project
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) India’s National Mission on Biodiesel

     7. What did India undertake a review of in 1997?
  • (a) National Economy
  • (b) Implementation of global agreements
  • (c) Paris Climate Agreement
  • (d) National Auto-fuel Policy
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Implementation of global agreements

     8. What is one of the key conclusions from India’s review in 1997?
  • (a) Significant progress in technology transfer
  • (b) Meaningful progress in financial resource transfer
  • (c) No meaningful progress in technology and financial resource transfer
  • (d) Developing countries’ refusal to cooperate
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) No meaningful progress in technology and financial resource transfer

     9. What does India emphasize regarding SAARC countries?
  • (a) Uniformity in environmental policies
  • (b) Independent positions on global environmental issues
  • (c) Adoption of a common position on major global environment issues
  • (d) Formation of an environmental coalition
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Adoption of a common position on major global environment issues

     10. What is the primary focus of India’s international negotiating position?
  • (a) Carbon emissions reduction
  • (b) Economic and social development
  • (c) Binding commitments for developing countries
  • (d) Per capita emissions restrictions
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Economic and social development

     11. What does India consider unfair in climate change discussions?
  • (a) Developing countries’ responsibilities
  • (b) Developing countries’ exemptions
  • (c) Developed countries’ responsibilities
  • (d) Developed countries’ exemptions
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Developed countries’ responsibilities

     12. What is the predicted rise in India’s per capita carbon emissions by 2030?
  • (a) Equal to the world average
  • (b) Significantly higher than the world average
  • (c) Less than half the world average in 2000
  • (d) Exactly the same as in 2000
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Less than half the world average in 2000

     13. Which act encourages the use of renewable energy in India?
  • (a) National Auto-fuel Policy
  • (b) Energy Conservation Act
  • (c) Electricity Act
  • (d) Environmental Protection Act
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Electricity Act

     14. What was the key conclusion of India’s review of the agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio?
  • (a) Meaningful progress in financial resource transfer
  • (b) Significant progress in technology transfer
  • (c) No meaningful progress in technology and financial resource transfer
  • (d) Full cooperation from developed nations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) No meaningful progress in technology and financial resource transfer

     15. What is the stance of India regarding binding commitments for rapidly industrializing countries?
  • (a) Strongly supports
  • (b) Strongly opposes
  • (c) Neutral
  • (d) Partially supports
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Strongly opposes

     1. What is emphasized as a significant response to the challenge of environmental degradation?
  • (a) Government regulations
  • (b) International treaties
  • (c) Environmental movements
  • (d) Technological advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Environmental movements

     2. Where do most of the environmentally conscious volunteers work?
  • (a) Regional level
  • (b) International level
  • (c) National level
  • (d) Local level
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Local level

     3. What is one important trait of contemporary environmental movements?
  • (a) Uniformity
  • (b) Diversity
  • (c) Conformity
  • (d) Centralization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Diversity

     4. Which industry is mentioned as one of the most powerful on the planet?
  • (a) Textile industry
  • (b) Agriculture
  • (c) Minerals industry
  • (d) Technology industry
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Minerals industry

     5. Which region faces enormous pressures related to forest movements?
  • (a) North America
  • (b) Europe
  • (c) South America
  • (d) Asia and Africa
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Asia and Africa

     6. Despite three decades of environmental activism, what trend has increased in the last decade?
  • (a) Environmental awareness
  • (b) Forest conservation
  • (c) Destruction of grand forests
  • (d) Global cooperation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Destruction of grand forests

     7. In which country did a network of groups campaign against the Western Mining Corporation?
  • (a) Brazil
  • (b) Australia
  • (c) Mexico
  • (d) India
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Australia

     8. What is the basis of opposition to the Western Mining Corporation in Australia?
  • (a) Economic reasons
  • (b) Environmental reasons
  • (c) Cultural reasons
  • (d) Political reasons
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Environmental reasons

     9. What does the destruction caused by the mineral industry continue to invite?
  • (a) Cooperation
  • (b) Criticism and resistance
  • (c) Global support
  • (d) Environmental awards
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Criticism and resistance

     10. Which country is mentioned as an example of significant efforts in adopting cleaner technologies?
  • (a) China
  • (b) India
  • (c) Brazil
  • (d) Australia
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) India

     11. What does India find necessary in terms of developed countries and UNFCCC commitments?
  • (a) Military assistance
  • (b) Immediate withdrawal
  • (c) Financial resources and clean technologies
  • (d) Environmental regulations
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Financial resources and clean technologies

     12. What stance does India take regarding binding commitments on rapidly industrializing countries?
  • (a) Strong support
  • (b) Strong opposition
  • (c) Neutral
  • (d) Partial support
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Strong opposition

     1. What is the primary focus of movements against mega-dams?
  • (a) Forest conservation
  • (b) River system management
  • (c) Non-violence advocacy
  • (d) Sustainable agriculture
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) River system management

     2. When did the first anti-dam movement in the North, the campaign to save the Franklin River, take place?
  • (a) 1960s
  • (b) 1970s
  • (c) 1980s
  • (d) 1990s
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1980s

     3. Where has there been a recent spurt in mega-dam building?
  • (a) North America
  • (b) Europe
  • (c) The South
  • (d) Australia
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) The South

     4. Which environmental movement in India is known for its opposition to dams?
  • (a) Chipko Movement
  • (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
  • (c) Save the Ganges Campaign
  • (d) Green Revolution Movement
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan

     5. What is a significant shared idea in anti-dam and other environmental movements in India?
  • (a) Industrialization
  • (b) Non-violence
  • (c) Technological advancement
  • (d) Urbanization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Non-violence

     6. What is the broader focus of anti-dam movements globally?
  • (a) Urban development
  • (b) Climate change
  • (c) Non-violent resistance
  • (d) Sustainable and equitable river management
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Sustainable and equitable river management

     1. What is the primary focus of resource geopolitics?
  • (a) Cultural exchange
  • (b) Military alliances
  • (c) Distribution of resources
  • (d) Trade and power expansion
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Distribution of resources

     2. What was the critical importance of naval timber supply for major European powers in the 17th century?
  • (a) Agricultural development
  • (b) Industrial revolution
  • (c) Maritime navigation
  • (d) Space exploration
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Maritime navigation

     3. What resource became a key priority for major European powers in the 17th century?
  • (a) Oil
  • (b) Timber
  • (c) Gold
  • (d) Coal
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Timber

     4. During the Cold War, what methods did industrialized countries adopt to ensure a steady flow of resources?
  • (a) Diplomatic isolation
  • (b) Military deployment
  • (c) Economic sanctions
  • (d) Educational reforms
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Military deployment

     5. What was a particular concern of Western strategic thinking during the Cold War?
  • (a) Cultural exchange
  • (b) Access to supplies
  • (c) Technological innovation
  • (d) Social equality
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Access to supplies

     6. After the Cold War, what continues to worry government and business decisions regarding several minerals?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Human rights issues
  • (c) Security of supply
  • (d) Agricultural policies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Security of supply

     7. What resource is highlighted as the most important in global strategy?
  • (a) Timber
  • (b) Oil
  • (c) Gold
  • (d) Coal
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Oil

     8. Which region was a particular concern for Western control of oil and strategic minerals during the Cold War?
  • (a) Southeast Asia
  • (b) North America
  • (c) Middle East
  • (d) Europe
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Middle East

     9. What was a significant concern of Western control during the Cold War?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Access to timber
  • (c) Security of supply
  • (d) Environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Security of supply

     10. What is the primary focus of traditional Western strategic thinking?
  • (a) Cultural exchange
  • (b) Access to supplies
  • (c) Technological innovation
  • (d) Social equality
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Access to supplies

     1. What played a crucial role in the global economy as a portable and indispensable fuel in the 20th century?
  • (a) Coal
  • (b) Natural gas
  • (c) Oil
  • (d) Hydroelectric power
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Oil

     2. What percentage of global oil production does West Asia, particularly the Gulf region, account for?
  • (a) 10%
  • (b) 20%
  • (c) 30%
  • (d) 40%
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 30%

     3. Which country in West Asia has a quarter of the world’s total oil reserves?
  • (a) Iraq
  • (b) Iran
  • (c) Saudi Arabia
  • (d) Kuwait
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Saudi Arabia

     4. What region is described as the only one able to satisfy any substantial rise in oil demand?
  • (a) North America
  • (b) East Asia
  • (c) West Asia
  • (d) South America
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) West Asia

     5. What is identified as a leading source of conflicts in the 21st century in the context of global politics?
  • (a) Technological advancements
  • (b) Religious differences
  • (c) Disagreements over freshwater
  • (d) Nuclear proliferation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Disagreements over freshwater

     6. What term is used to describe the possibility of violent conflict over freshwater?
  • (a) Energy wars
  • (b) Oil conflicts
  • (c) Water wars
  • (d) Resource battles
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Water wars

     7. What is a typical disagreement between downstream and upstream states regarding shared rivers?
  • (a) Military alliances
  • (b) Pollution
  • (c) Trade imbalances
  • (d) Cultural exchange
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Pollution

     8. Which countries were involved in conflicts over attempts to divert water from the Jordan and Yarmuk Rivers in the 1950s and 1960s?
  • (a) India and Pakistan
  • (b) Israel, Syria, and Jordan
  • (c) USA and Canada
  • (d) Brazil and Argentina
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Israel, Syria, and Jordan

     9. What is the main concern of countries that share rivers, according to the provided content?
  • (a) Technological innovation
  • (b) Military alliances
  • (c) Environmental conservation
  • (d) Trade imbalances
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Environmental conservation

     10. What is the primary focus of traditional Western strategic thinking?
  • (a) Cultural exchange
  • (b) Access to supplies
  • (c) Technological innovation
  • (d) Social equality
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Access to supplies

     11. What has been the focus of interstate rivalry in the context of resource geopolitics?
  • (a) Religious conflicts
  • (b) Water rights
  • (c) Overseas resources and maritime navigation
  • (d) Environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Overseas resources and maritime navigation

     12. What resource is identified as relevant to global politics and prone to disagreements?
  • (a) Timber
  • (b) Natural gas
  • (c) Freshwater
  • (d) Minerals
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Freshwater

     13. What is considered a key priority for major European powers from the 17th century onwards?
  • (a) Access to coal mines
  • (b) Control of maritime navigation
  • (c) Preservation of biodiversity
  • (d) Naval timber supply
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Naval timber supply

     14. What has been the historical relationship between oil and political struggles?
  • (a) Cooperation and harmony
  • (b) Independence and self-sufficiency
  • (c) War and struggle
  • (d) Environmental conservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) War and struggle

     15. What is the primary focus of the United States, Europe, Japan, India, and China in relation to oil?
  • (a) Production of oil
  • (b) Export of oil
  • (c) Consumption of oil
  • (d) Conservation of oil
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Consumption of oil

     1. How does the UN define indigenous populations?
  • (a) Descendants of people from other parts of the world
  • (b) Inhabitants of a country at the arrival of different cultures
  • (c) Current citizens of a country
  • (d) Immigrants from other territories
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Inhabitants of a country at the arrival of different cultures

     2. What distinguishes indigenous people’s lifestyle in the present day?
  • (a) Adherence to modern customs
  • (b) Conformity to country institutions
  • (c) Strict adherence to traditional customs and traditions
  • (d) Active participation in political movements
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Strict adherence to traditional customs and traditions

     3. How many indigenous peoples are estimated worldwide, including India?
  • (a) 3 crore
  • (b) 10 crore
  • (c) 20 crore
  • (d) 30 crore
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) 30 crore

     4. What is the primary concern of indigenous voices in world politics?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Political dominance
  • (c) Admission to the world community as equals
  • (d) Territorial expansion
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Admission to the world community as equals

     5. Which region is NOT mentioned as inhabited by indigenous people?
  • (a) Central and South America
  • (b) Africa
  • (c) Australia
  • (d) Europe
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Europe

     6. What phrase is commonly used by indigenous people to describe their continued occupancy of lands?
  • (a) “In modern times”
  • (b) “Since colonization”
  • (c) “Since times immemorial”
  • (d) “During recent centuries”
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) “Since times immemorial”

     7. What is considered the most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people?
  • (a) Loss of political autonomy
  • (b) Loss of cultural customs
  • (c) Loss of land
  • (d) Loss of economic resources
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Loss of land

     8. What do indigenous societies worldwide share similar worldviews about?
  • (a) Political dominance
  • (b) Technological innovation
  • (c) Land and life systems
  • (d) Industrialization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Land and life systems

     9 . Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an area inhabited by indigenous people?
  • (a) Central and South America
  • (b) India
  • (c) Australia
  • (d) Europe
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Europe

     10. What is the primary request of indigenous people in relation to governments?
  • (a) Territorial expansion
  • (b) Economic development
  • (c) Recognition as enduring communities
  • (d) Political dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Recognition as enduring communities

     11. What is the common interest shared by indigenous people worldwide?
  • (a) Territorial expansion
  • (b) Economic development
  • (c) Admission to the world community as equals
  • (d) Political dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Admission to the world community as equals

     12. Which region is specifically mentioned as inhabited by indigenous people?
  • (a) Europe
  • (b) Oceania
  • (c) North America
  • (d) Asia
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Asia

     13. How are indigenous people described in relation to the institutions of the country they inhabit?
  • (a) Active participants
  • (b) Conforming citizens
  • (c) Cultural preservationists
  • (d) Critics
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Cultural preservationists

     14. What is the significance of the phrase “Since times immemorial” in the context of indigenous people?
  • (a) Recent colonization
  • (b) Continuous land occupancy
  • (c) Territorial expansion
  • (d) Political dominance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Continuous land occupancy

     15. What is the primary concern for the survival of indigenous people according to the provided content?
  • (a) Loss of political autonomy
  • (b) Loss of cultural customs
  • (c) Loss of land
  • (d) Loss of economic resources
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Loss of land

     1. In India, the term ‘indigenous people’ is commonly associated with:
  • (a) Urban communities
  • (b) Scheduled Tribes
  • (c) Religious minorities
  • (d) Agricultural communities
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Scheduled Tribes

     2. What percentage of India’s population do Scheduled Tribes constitute?
  • (a) 5%
  • (b) 8%
  • (c) 12%
  • (d) 15%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 8%

     3. What was the primary subsistence method for most indigenous populations in India?
  • (a) Industrial labor
  • (b) Trade and commerce
  • (c) Hunting and gathering
  • (d) Land cultivation
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Land cultivation

     4. When did indigenous populations in India face external pressures on the areas they inhabited?
  • (a) Ancient times
  • (b) During Mughal rule
  • (c) British colonial rule
  • (d) Post-independence era
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) British colonial rule

     5. What constitutional protection do Scheduled Tribes have in India?
  • (a) Economic privileges
  • (b) Educational benefits
  • (c) Political representation
  • (d) Land ownership rights
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Political representation

     6. What is the outcome of the development for indigenous communities since independence in India?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Political empowerment
  • (c) Marginalization and displacement
  • (d) Social integration
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Marginalization and displacement

     7. When was the World Council of Indigenous Peoples formed?
  • (a) 1950
  • (b) 1965
  • (c) 1975
  • (d) 1980
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 1975

     8. What was the significance of the World Council of Indigenous Peoples in the UN?
  • (a) It received a Nobel Prize
  • (b) It achieved diplomatic recognition
  • (c) It became the first indigenous NGO with UN consultative status
  • (d) It initiated global trade agreements
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) It became the first indigenous NGO with UN consultative status

     9. What common concern brought international indigenous leaders together during the 1970s?
  • (a) Economic reforms
  • (b) Climate change
  • (c) Shared experiences and rights
  • (d) Cultural preservation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Shared experiences and rights

     10. Which movements against globalization focused on the rights of indigenous people?
  • (a) Labor unions
  • (b) Environmental movements
  • (c) Indigenous NGOs
  • (d) Anti-globalization movements
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Anti-globalization movements

     1. What environmental issue is highlighted in the content?
  • (a) Deforestation
  • (b) Air pollution
  • (c) Toxic water in the Aral Sea
  • (d) Climate change
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Toxic water in the Aral Sea

     2. What impact has the toxic water in the Aral Sea had on the fishing industry?
  • (a) Increased profits
  • (b) Collapse of the industry
  • (c) Expansion of fishing activities
  • (d) Diversification of products
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Collapse of the industry

     3. What is the impact of rising concentrations of salt in the soil?
  • (a) Increased crop yields
  • (b) No impact on crops
  • (c) High crop yields
  • (d) Low crop yields
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Low crop yields

     4. What humorous remark is made by the locals regarding the studies conducted on the Aral Sea?
  • (a) Locals complain about too many studies
  • (b) Locals suggest bringing more researchers
  • (c) Locals make jokes about filling the sea with water from studies
  • (d) Locals appreciate the studies
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Locals make jokes about filling the sea with water from studies

     1. What percentage of the world’s wilderness area does the Antarctic continental region represent?
  • (a) 14%
  • (b) 26%
  • (c) 70%
  • (d) 90%
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) 26%

     2. Which component of the Antarctic marine ecosystem is central to the food chain?
  • (a) Fish
  • (b) Birds
  • (c) Krill
  • (d) Marine mammals
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Krill

     3. What role does the Antarctic play in maintaining climatic equilibrium?
  • (a) Warming the Earth
  • (b) Cooling the Earth
  • (c) Regulating greenhouse gas concentrations
  • (d) Creating hurricanes
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Regulating greenhouse gas concentrations

     4. Which countries have made legal claims to sovereign rights over Antarctic territory?
  • (a) USA and Russia
  • (b) UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France, Australia, and New Zealand
  • (c) Canada and Brazil
  • (d) China and India
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France, Australia, and New Zealand

     5. What activities have been limited in the Antarctic since 1959?
  • (a) Mining
  • (b) Industrial production
  • (c) Scientific research, fishing, and tourism
  • (d) Agriculture
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Scientific research, fishing, and tourism

     6. What is the predominant substance causing degradation in parts of the Antarctic region?
  • (a) Plastic waste
  • (b) Radioactive materials
  • (c) Oil spills
  • (d) Industrial pollutants
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Oil spills

     7. What percentage of planetary fresh water is represented by the Antarctic?
  • (a) 50%
  • (b) 60%
  • (c) 70%
  • (d) 80%
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) 70%

     8. What is the importance of deep ice cores in the Antarctic?
  • (a) Source of drinking water
  • (b) Provide information about past climates
  • (c) Foundation for buildings
  • (d) Create artificial glaciers
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Provide information about past climates

     9. What is the predominant terrestrial life in the Antarctic?
  • (a) Large mammals
  • (b) Trees and plants
  • (c) Insects
  • (d) Few plants like microscopic algae, fungi, and lichen
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Few plants like microscopic algae, fungi, and lichen

     10. What is the opposing view held by most other states regarding the Antarctic?
  • (a) It should be divided into territories
  • (b) It is subject to exclusive jurisdiction of any state
  • (c) It should be open for settlement
  • (d ) It should be used for military purposes
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) It is subject to exclusive jurisdiction of any state

     1. What are sacred groves in India?
  • (a) Unexplored caves
  • (b) Reserved hunting areas
  • (c) Parcels of uncut forest vegetation
  • (d) Ancient burial grounds
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Parcels of uncut forest vegetation

     2. What is the role of sacred groves in community-based resource management?
  • (a) Harvesting resources without regulation
  • (b) Ecologically sustained harvesting
  • (c) Industrial resource extraction
  • (d) Resource depletion
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Ecologically sustained harvesting

     3. What is the potential of sacred groves according to some researchers?
  • (a) Economic development
  • (b) Preservation of biodiversity, ecological functions, and cultural diversity
  • (c) Urbanization
  • (d) Industrialization
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Preservation of biodiversity, ecological functions, and cultural diversity

     4. What is the traditional value of sacred groves for Hindus?
  • (a) Economic resources
  • (b) Sites for housing
  • (c) Embodied spiritual and cultural attributes
  • (d) Agricultural lands
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Embodied spiritual and cultural attributes

     5. What is the basis for the long-standing commitment to preserving sacred groves?
  • (a) Economic prosperity
  • (b) Resource scarcity
  • (c) Deep religious reverence for nature
  • (d) Urbanization
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Deep religious reverence for nature

     6. What problem arises in managing sacred groves?
  • (a) Over-harvesting
  • (b) Lack of community interest
  • (c) Legal ownership and operational control held by different entities
  • (d) Industrial pollution
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Legal ownership and operational control held by different entities

     7. What is fading with the advent of new national forest policies?
  • (a) Cultural diversity
  • (b) Ecological functions
  • (c) Institutional identity of sacred groves
  • (d) Economic resources
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Institutional identity of sacred groves

     8. What are sacred groves valued for in traditional societies?
  • (a) Industrial potential
  • (b) Economic growth
  • (c) Embodied spiritual and cultural attributes
  • (d) Sites for construction
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Embodied spiritual and cultural attributes

     9. What has slowly encroached on sacred forests in recent years?
  • (a) Scientific research
  • (b) Agricultural activities
  • (c) Industrialization
  • (d) Expansion and human settlement
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Expansion and human settlement

    10. What do sacred groves share characteristics with?
  • (a) Shopping malls
  • (b) Industrial zones
  • (c) Common property resource systems
  • (d) Urban centers
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Common property resource systems

     1. What was the cause of protests in Phulbari town, Bangladesh?
  • (a) Proposed construction of a shopping mall
  • (b) Introduction of a new water conservation project
  • (c) Open-cast coal mine project
  • (d) Implementation of an agricultural initiative
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Open-cast coal mine project

     2. Where did the protests against the coal mine project take place?
  • (a) Jal Yojana
  • (b) Jal Nagari
  • (c) Phulbari town
  • (d) Jal Kshetra
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Phulbari town

     3. What year did the protests against the proposed coal mine project occur?
  • (a) 2006
  • (b) 2010
  • (c) 2002
  • (d) 2015
    • Answer

    Answer: (a) 2006

     1. Who is the narrator of the passage?
  • (a) Mr. Bigoil
  • (b) Sheikh Petrodollah
  • (c) Mr & Mrs Gobbledoo Toppleton
  • (d) Unknown narrator
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Sheikh Petrodollah

     2. What is referred to as “filthy rich” in the passage?
  • (a) Black Gold
  • (b) The Royal Family
  • (c) Mr. Bigoil
  • (d) The Kingdom
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) The Royal Family

     3. What resource is the Kingdom of Black Gold rich in?
  • (a) Silver
  • (b) Diamonds
  • (c) Oil
  • (d) Gold
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Oil

     4. Which country’s government is mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) The Kingdom of Black Gold
  • (b) Mr & Mrs Gobbledoo Toppleton’s
  • (c) Mr. Bigoil’s
  • (d) The Ruffians
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Mr & Mrs Gobbledoo Toppleton’s

     5. What does Sheikh Petrodollah value the most in his land?
  • (a) Military power
  • (b) Freedom and democracy
  • (c) Oil and loyalty
  • (d) Precious things
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Precious things

     6. What is the narrator’s attitude towards Bigoil’s government?
  • (a) Admiration
  • (b) Indifference
  • (c) Skepticism
  • (d) Hostility
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Skepticism

     7. What is the tone of Mr. & Mrs. Gobbledoo Toppleton’s section?
  • (a) Enthusiastic
  • (b) Sarcastic
  • (c) Humorous
  • (d) Fearful
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Humorous

     8. What does Sheikh Petrodollah believe in?
  • (a) Communism
  • (b) Capitalism
  • (c) Socialism
  • (d) Free market system
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) Free market system

     9. Why do some of Mr & Mrs. Gobbledoo Toppleton’s people hate Toppleton?
  • (a) Unfair war games
  • (b) Changing rules
  • (c) Encroachment on sacred forests
  • (d) Inability to provide oil
    • < details> Answer

    Answer: (b) Changing rules

     10. What is the primary focus of Mr. Bigoil and sons?
  • (a) Military dominance
  • (b) Environmental conservation
  • (c) Oil extraction and business
  • (d) Humanitarian efforts
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Oil extraction and business

     11. What is the significance of the new beauty mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) It’s a new law passed by Mr & Mrs. Gobbledoo Toppleton
  • (b) It represents a new political ideology
  • (c) It symbolizes environmental consciousness
  • (d) It’s a luxurious vehicle
    • Answer

    Answer: (d) It’s a luxurious vehicle

     12. What are some activities limited in the Antarctic since 1959?
  • (a) Industrialization and urbanization
  • (b) Military operations and scientific research
  • (c) Fishing, tourism, and scientific research
  • (d) Agricultural development and mining
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Fishing, tourism, and scientific research

     13. What do sacred groves embody, according to the passage?
  • (a) Political power
  • (b) Ecological sustainability and cultural diversity
  • (c) Economic prosperity
  • (d) Scientific advancements
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Ecological sustainability and cultural diversity

     14. What role does the Antarctic play in maintaining?
  • (a) Economic equilibrium
  • (b) Political stability
  • (c) Climatic equilibrium
  • (d) Cultural diversity
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Climatic equilibrium

     15. What is the primary source of information about the Antarctic environment mentioned in the passage?
  • (a) Satellite images
  • (b) Deep ice cores
  • (c) Scientific experiments
  • (d) Local observations
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Deep ice cores

     1. What is the initial task given to each student?
  • (a) List ten historical events
  • (b) Calculate daily expenses
  • (c) List ten items consumed/used daily
  • (d) Estimate future consumption trends
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) List ten items consumed/used daily

     2. What kind of calculation is required for finished products like pen/pencil/computer?
  • (a) Time calculation
  • (b) Distance calculation
  • (c) Amount of resources calculation
  • (d) Financial calculation
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Amount of resources calculation

     3. What role is the teacher expected to play during this activity?
  • (a) Calculator
  • (b) Facilitator
  • (c) Assessor
  • (d) Supervisor
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Facilitator

     4. What is the purpose of collecting the approximate figures from each student?
  • (a) To calculate class attendance
  • (b) To measure academic performance
  • (c) To calculate the amount of natural resources consumed
  • (d) To determine daily routines
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) To calculate the amount of natural resources consumed

     5. What is the teacher instructed to project using the collected figures?
  • (a) Student expenses
  • (b) Resource consumption by other classes
  • (c) Consumption trends in other countries
  • (d) Future population growth
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Resource consumption by other classes

     6. What category of countries should be considered while selecting countries for comparison?
  • (a) Populous countries
  • (b) Developed / Developing countries
  • (c) Geographically isolated countries
  • (d) Countries with historical significance
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Developed / Developing countries

     7. What is the primary focus of the students’ imagination in the last instruction?
  • (a) Extraterrestrial life
  • (b) Future technologies
  • (c) Resource consumption
  • (d) Artistic expression
    • Answer

    Answer: (c) Resource consumption

     8. What does the passage suggest students estimate for items like water?
  • (a) Distance traveled
  • (b) Electricity used
  • (c) Chemical composition
  • (d) Weight of the item
    • Answer

    Answer: (b) Electricity used

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